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NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 December
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1. India is on the verge of eradicating which of the following diseases?
(D) Lymphatic Filariasis
2. Which of the following is a conditional cash transfer scheme implemented at the ICDs level?
(A) Kishori Shakti Yojana
(B) Rajiv Gandhi Scheme for employment of adolescent girls
(C) Indira Gandhi Matratva Sahayog Yojana
(D) Nutrition Programme for adolescent girls
3. The most effective tool for measuring incidence of a disease in community is
(A) Case control study
(B) Cohort study
(C) Cross sectional study
(D) Retrospective study
4. The relationship between prevalence incidence and duration of an illness for stable condition is expressed as
(A) Prevalence = Incidence + duration
(B) Prevalence = Incidence – duration
(C) Prevalence =
(D) Prevalence = Incidence × duration
5. Panchayati Raj at village level includes following bodies excepts:
(A) Gram Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Gram Panchayat
(D) Nyaya Sabha
6. Declaration of the Rights of the Child was adopted in 1959 by
(D) United Nations
7. If a drug prevents mortality but does not give complete cure of a disease, then the effect will be
(A) Increase in Incidence
(B) Increase in Prevalence
(C) Decrease in Incidence
(D) Decrease in Prevalence
8. In Biostatistics all are the parameters excepts
9. Giving access to the suitable environment for ready expression of genes is called
(B) Population Genetics
(D) Human Genome Project
10. All the following are criteria for identifying “at risk” infants except:
(A) Birth weight less than 2.5 kg
(B) Birth order of 3 or more
(C) Weight below 70% of the expected weight.
(D) Failure to gain weight during three successive months.
11. The study of time, place, person distribution of a disease is known as
(A) Descriptive Epidemiology
(B) Experimental Epidemiology
(C) Analytical Epidemiology
(D) Clinical Epidemiology
12. “Yates correction” is applied to
(A) Standard error of mean
(B) Standard error of proportion
(C) Paired ‘t’ test
(D) Chi square test
13. “The relative frequencies of each gene allele tends to remain constant from generation to generation” is stated by
(A) Mendelian Law
(B) Genotype Expression
(C) Hardy Weinberg Law
(D) Phenotype Expression
14. Years of potential life lost is a type of
(A) Mortality Indicator
(B) Morbidity Indicator
(C) Disability Indicator
(D) Utilization Rate
15. The advantages of case control studies are the following except:
(A) Quick result are obtained
(B) Useful in rare disease
(C) Costs less
(D) Relative risk can be calculated
16. All are the types of selection bias except
(A) Volunteer Bias
(B) Berkesonian Bias
(C) Survivorship Bias
(D) Observers Bias
17. Turners Syndrome is a Genetic disease related to abnormality of
(A) Chromosome 21
(B) Y chromosome
(C) Any Autosome
(D) x chromosome
18. Which of the following is a event type disability indicator?
(A) Limitation of mobility
(B) Bed disability days
(C) Limitation to perform the basic Activities of Daily Living (ADL)
(D) Confinement to Bed house
19. The ratio between incidence among exposed persons and incidence among non-exposed persons is known as
(A) Odds ratio
(B) Attributable risk
(C) Relative risk
(D) Population attributable risk
20. Daily requirement of folic acid during pregnancy as per ICMR 2010 recommendation is
(A) 500 mcg
(B) 200 mcg
(C) 80-120 mcg
(D) 300 mcg
21. Out of total tuberculosis load the percentage contribution of childhood tuberculosis is
(A) < 10
(B) 10 to 20
(C) 30 to 40
(D) ≥ 50
22. Subjective state of the person who feels aware of not being well is referred to as
23. A study was started in the year 2005 in Nashik with 30,000 population of alcoholics. The occurrence of cancer amongst them was studied in 2012-13. The study design is
(A) Cash control study
(B) Prospective cohort study
(C) Retrospective cohort study
(D) Cross sectional study
24. Protein energy ratio is maximum for
(B) Cow milk
(C) Tur dal
25. The first round of the National Pulse Polio Immunisation in India was held during
26. Handicap in children refers to an impairment or other circumstances that interfere with all except
(A) Normal Growth
(B) Normal Development
(C) Capacity to fulfil a social role
(D) Capacity to learn
27. A verbal autopsy means
(A) examination of a dead body where post mortem facilities are not available.
(B) finding out the cause of death by interviewing the relative of a dead person.
(C) inquest report of panchanama.
(D) periodic death conference.
28. Approximate Energy Expenditure in Kcal/hour on walking 4 kilometres/hour for 60 kg reference man is
29. Persistent carrier state for hepatitis-B refers to carriers of more than
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 9 months
(D) 12 months
30. Goal No. 4 is Millennium Development Goal (MDG) related to child health is, to reduce under 5 mortality rate between 1990-2015 by
31. One of the unsaturated fatty acids of animal origin is
(D) Fish oil
32. Which article of the constitution of India covers all health subjects enumerated in union list, concurrent list & States list?
33. Stop TB strategy was started by WHO in
34. Abdominal fat accumulation is indicated by waist hip ratio
(A) >1 in Men 8 > 0.85 in Women
(B) >1 in Men 8 > 1 in Women
(C) >2 in Men 8 > 0.5 in Women
(D) >1 in Men 8 > 0.5 in Women
35. Lowest Glycemic Index Food has to be selected by an obese person. The best, amongst the following will be
(A) White Bread
(B) Corn Flakes
(D) Brown rice
36. All are the models of Health Education except
(A) Socio economic model
(B) Medical model
(C) Motivational model
(D) Social interventional model
37. As per 2011 census when is India predicted to reach the replacement level of fertility?
38. “Jai Vigyan Mission Mode” project is being carried out in India for community control of
(C) Rheumatic Fever/Rheumatic Heart Disease
39. As per the criteria decided by WHO Anemia in children aged 6 months to 5 years is defined as Haemoglobin below the following levels in venous blood
(A) 13 g/dl
(B) 12.5 g/dl
(C) 12 g/dl
(D) 11 g/dl
40. Interruption of transmission of disease from a large geographic area is called as
41. Which of the following states/union territories has the lowest sex ratio as per 2011 census?
(C) Uttar Pradesh
42. The optimum size of base population for a population based cancer registry is in the range of
(A) 0.2 – 0.4 million
(B) 0.4 – 0.7 million
(C) 1 – 2 million
(D) 2 – 7 million
43. NALGONDA technique is used for the removal of
(B) Beta Oxalyl Amino Alanine
44. Population in which of the following countries has 100% access to both safe water and adequate sanitation
(A) Sri Lanka
45. The optimum fluorine concentration in drinking water in India in ppm is
(A) < 0.5
(B) 0.5 to 0.8
(C) 0.9 to 1.2
46. Natural history of disease is best established by
(A) Cohort study
(B) Case control study
(C) Randomised controlled trial
(D) Prevalence study
47. Which of the following microorganisms is not killed by pasteurisation of milk?
(A) Bacillus anthracis
(D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
48. The number of member countries in South East Asia Region of WHO is
49. Immunisation of mother against tetanus provides immunity to the new born for a period of
(A) one month
(B) three months
(C) six months
(D) twelve months
50. Ability of an infectious agent to undergo multiplication in a host is
51. According to ICMR guidelines 2010 the additional energy requirements during pregnancy and lactation are respectively.
(A) 350 calories and 600 calories
(B) 325 calories and 500 calories
(C) 250 calories and 550 calories
(D) 300 calories and 450 calories
52. What is the size of the dust particle causing pneumoconiosis?
(A) 1 to 3 microns
(B) 2.0 to 3.5 microns
(C) 0.5 to 3 microns
(D) 0.5 to 5 microns
53. The disease Dengue fever is transmitted by
(A) Anopheles mosquitoes
(B) Culex mosquitoes
(C) Aedes mosquitoes
(D) Mansonia mosquitoes
54. Immunization is a type of
(A) Primary Prevention
(B) Secondary Prevention
(C) Tertiary Prevention
(D) Primordial Prevention
55. Which of the following is not a “basic activity” in the management process?
(D) Terminal Evaluation
56. Plant foods having highest retinol equivalents in microgms/100 gms is
57. Lymphatic Filariasis is not a public health problem in
(C) Jammu & Kashmir
58. Underlying cause of death in International form of death certificate is recorded on
(A) Line (a) of Part I
(B) Line (b) of Part I
(C) Line (c) of Part I
(D) Part II
59. ‘Rachet Principle’ is applicable in relation to
(A) Performance appraisal
(B) Systems analysis
(C) Network analysis
(D) Behaviour analysis
60. The single must sensitive tool for evaluating iron status is by measurement of
(A) MCHC percentage
(B) Haemoglobin concentration
(C) Serum iron concentration
(D) Serum ferritin
61. Leprosy is considered as a eliminated if the prevalence is less than
(A) 1 percent
(B) 1 per 1,000 population
(C) 1 per 10,000 population
(D) 1 per 1,00,000 population
62. Sample Registration System (SRS) estimates of child mortality rate in India is calculated as
(A) Annual no. of deaths in children below 5 years per 1000 live births.
(B) Annual no. of deaths in children below 5 years per 1000 under five children.
(C) Annual no. of deaths in children below 5 years per 10,000 live births.
(D) Annual no. of deaths in children below 5 years.
63. The critical path method in health planning and management refers to
(A) The shortest path taken to complete the project.
(B) The longest path taken to complete the project.
(C) The mid-point of reviewing the project.
(D) The ideal path taken to complete the project.
64. Specificity of a screening test is the ability to correctly identify:
(A) True Negatives
(B) True Positives
(C) False Positives
(D) False Negatives
65. Peculiarity of AIDS epidemic in North Eastern State of India is
(A) Spread by homosexuality
(B) Higher mother to Child transmission
(C) Female preponderance
(D) Transmission by IV drug abuse
66. The recommended method of disposal of waste sharps under biomedical waste guidelines is
(B) Disinfection and disposal in landfill
(C) Disinfection and mutilation shredding
67. Notification of a disease is the important source of information. The internationally notifiable disease are the following except
(B) Yellow fever
68. According to NFHS-3 the approximate percentage of anaemia in women is follows:
69. Approximate population of India in the year 2011 was
(A) 1.11 Billion
(B) 1.21 Billion
(C) 1.31 Billion
(D) 1.41 Billion
70. Characteristics of waste suitable for incineration are
(A) waste having low heating volume
(B) halogenated plastics
(C) waste with high mercury content
(D) pressurised gas containers
71. The Peak Expiratory Flow Rate (PEFR) of a group of 11 years old girls follows a normal distribution with a mean of 300 litres per minute, with a S.D. of 20 litres/min. The correct statement would be
(A) All girls lungs are functioning well.
(B) About 95% girls have PEFR between 260 and 340 litres/minute.
(C) About 5% of the girls have PEFR below 260 litres.
(D) All the PEFR must be less than 340 litres/minute.
72. The weight of two large hen eggs without shell is about
(A) 80 gms
(B) 100 gms
(C) 120 gms
(D) 150 gms
73. Strength of sewage is expressed in terms
(A) Biochemical oxygen demand
(B) Chemical oxygen demand
(C) Suspended solids
(D) E.coli. count
74. Which of the following “Cholesterol/HDL ratio” values is recommended as a clinical goal for Coronary Heat Disease prevention:
(A) < 2
(B) < 2.5
(C) < 3.5
(D) < 4
75. Type I error is
(A) Accepting a Null Hypothesis
(B) Accepting a Null Hypothesis when false
(C) Rejecting a Null Hypothesis
(D) Rejecting a Null Hypothesis when true
Year Wise Solved UGC NET Social Medicine And Community Health Paper 3 Previous Year Question Papers
The old UGC NET Examination paper-3 in Social Medicine and Community Health was of descriptive type till December 2011.
Paper 3 becomes the objective type from June 2012 to November 2017. From July 2018 onward, paper 3 was stopped and becomes part of paper 2 itself.
So, the old questions for paper-3 from June 2012 to November 2017 which were of objective type (multiple choice questions) can be used by the UGC NET aspirants for their better preparation for paper-2.
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are given below.
|Download Year Wise NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health paper 3 Solved Paper|
|UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2017 November|
|UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2016 July|
|UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 June|
|UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 December|
|UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 June|
|UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 December|
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 December
|UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 June|
|UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June|
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