NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2012 June

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NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2012 June

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1. The recommended level of fluorides in drinking water per litre in India is

(A) < 0.5 mg

(B) 0.5 to 0.8 mg

(C) > 0.8 to < 1.2 mg

(D) > 1.2 mg

Answer: (B)

2. Which one of the following amino acids is non-essential?

(A) Leucin

(B) Isoleucine

(C) Lysine

(D) Glycine

Answer: (D)

3. The most invasive and virulent species of Brucella Micro-organism is

(A) B. Melitensis

(B) B. Abortus

(C) B. Suis

(D) B. Canis

Answer: (A)

4. All of the following diseases require surveillance according to WHO except:

(A) Chicken-pox

(B) Yellow fever

(C) Malaria

(D) Rabies

Answer: (A)

5. Salk vaccine is a

(A) Live vaccine

(B) Live attenuated vaccine

(C) Killed vaccine

(D) Toxoid

Answer: (C)

6. The most widely used strain of rubella virus for vaccine production is

(A) HPV/77

(B) Japanese To 336

(C) RA 27/3

(D) Cendehill virus

Answer: (C)

7. All of the following are reasons for rapid spread of influenza except:

(A) Short incubation period

(B) Large number of subclinical cases

(C) Presence of cross immunity

(D) Short duration of immunity

Answer: (C)

8. Which of the following characteristics are true for a ‘Case Control Study’?

(A) Both exposure and outcome have occurred before start of a study.

(B) It cannot test causal hypothesis.

(C) Relative risk can be calculated.

(D) A long period of follow up is required.

Answer: (A)

9. The area is aid to be hyper endemic if spleen rate exceeds

(A) 10%

(B) 30%

(C) 50%

(D) 70%

Answer: (C)

10. The denominator for ‘General Fertility Rate’ is

(A) Mid-year population

(B) Mid-year population of 15-45 years

(C) Mid-year population of all women

(D) Mid-year population of 15-45 year age group married women

Answer: (B)

11. All are true of cohort study except

(A) Both groups are free of disease.

(B) The study proceeds from cause to effect.

(C) It is an observational study.

(D) Relative risk cannot be computed.

Answer: (D)

12. The radiation exposure in mammography is

(A) 0.3 rads

(B) 1 rad

(C) 5 rads

(D) 10 rads

Answer: (A)

Questions 13 to 20 are of multiple selection type.

13. The components of validity of screening tests are

I. Sensitivity

II. Specificity

III. Positive Predictive Value

IV. Negative Predictive Value

(A) I, II and III correct

(B) I and II correct

(C) I, III and IV correct

(D) I and IV correct

Answer: (B)

14. Which of the following viral hepatitis can be prevented by vaccination?

I. Hepatitis A

II. Hepatitis B

III. Hepatitis C

IV. Hepatitis E

(A) I & II correct

(B) I, II & III correct

(C) I & III correct

(D) II, III & IV correct

Answer: (A)

15. Reduced osmalarity ORS recommended by WHO and UNICEF have following ingredients:

I. Sodium Chloride

II. Soda bicarob

III. Potassium Chloride

IV. Trisodium citrate dihydrate

(A) I, II, & III correct

(B) II & III correct

(C) I, II & IV correct

(D) I, III & IV correct

Answer: (D)

16. Gastro-intestinal symptoms are very prominent in the following types of bacterial food poisoning:

I. Salmonella typhimurium

II. Staphylococcus aurius

III. Clostridium botulinum

IV. Clostridium perfingens

(A) I, II, & III correct

(B) I, II & IV correct

(C) III & IV correct

(D) II, III & IV correct

Answer: (B)

17. W. ban crofti is transmitted to man by the bites of the following mosquitoes:

I. Anopheles

II. Culex

III. Aedes

IV. Mansonia

(A) I, II, & III correct

(B) I & II correct

(C) II & III correct

(D) II, III & IV correct

Answer: (A)

18. In India rabies does not occur in the following territories:

I. Kerala

II. Tamilnadu

III. Lakshadweep Islands

IV. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(A) I & III correct

(B) I & II correct

(C) I, III & IV correct

(D) III & IV correct

Answer: (D)

19. Following is true about the recommended additional daily allowance for the pregnant women

I. Calories – 300 K cal

II. Proteins – 15 gm

III. Vitamin A – 750 µg

IV. Calcium – 600 mg

(A) I, II, & IV correct

(B) I, II & III correct

(C) II & III correct

(D) I & II correct

Answer: (A)

20. Following Arboviral diseases are highly prevalent in India.

I. Dengue

II. Japanese Encephelitis

III. Chikungunya

IV. Yellow Fever

(A) I, II, & IV correct

(B) I, II & III correct

(C) I & III correct

(D) I & II correct

Answer: (B)

Give below (21 to 30) consists of the two paired statements, statement A (Assertion) and Statement R (Reason).

Select appropriate answer using the codes given below as follows:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

21. (A) Adolescents are less vulnerable to disease than the very young and very old.

(R) Little prominence is given to health problems specific to their age.

Answer: (B)

22. (A) Absentism is a useful index in industry.

(R) The causes of sickness absentismare entirely due to sickness.

Answer: (C)

23. (A) The problems affecting the health of mothers and child are multifactorial.

(R) Mothers and children constitute a large vulnerable group.

Answer: (B)

24. (A) crucial elements in primary prevention is early diagnosis and prompt treatment.

(R) Oral cancer is amenable to primary prevention.

Answer: (D)

25. (A) Triage consists of rapidly classifying the injured on the basis of severity of their injuries and the likelihood of their survival with prompt medical intervention.

(R) Triage should be adapted to locally available skills.

Answer: (B)

26. (A) Matching is a process by which controls are selected in such a way that they are similar to cases with regard to certain variables which are known to influence the outcome of disease.

(R) Matching is liable to distort or confound the results.

Answer: (C)

27. (A) Food fortification is a public health measure for prevention of nutritional deficiency disorders.

(R) It is a process whereby nutrients are added to food to maintain and improve the quality of diet of a group of people.

Answer: (A)

28. (A) Vasectomy has the highest cost benefit as compared to tubectomy.

(R) Therefore it is readily accepted by the population.

Answer: (C)

29. (A) Congenital anomaly is the most common cause of neonatal mortality in India.

(R) According to WHO congenital anomaly includes all biochemical, structural and functional disorders present at birth.

Answer: (D)

30. (A) SRS (2003) estimates are 7.2% of total population to be above the age of 60 years.

(R) This low proportion of geriatric population is due to failure of increase in life expectancy of Indian population.

Answer: (C)

31. Identify correct ascending order of retinol equivalents of commonly consumed food stuffs.

(A) Milk, Carrots, Eggs, Green Leaves

(B) Carrot, Eggs, Milk, Green Leaves

(C) Milk, Eggs, Green Leaves, Carrots

(D) Green Leaves, Eggs, Milk, Carrots

Answer: (C)

32. Identify correct descending order of Vitamin C content of commonly consumed Indian food stuffs

(A) Orange, Lime, Amla, Guava

(B) Lime, Amla, Guava, Orange

(C) Amla, Guava, Lime, Orange

(D) Guava, Amla, Lime, Orange

Answer: (C)

33. Identify the correct chronological order of the commencement of the following National Health Programmes

(A) National Malaria Control Programme, National Blindness Control Programme, National Tuberculosis Control Programme, National Mental Health Programme.

(B) National Tuberculosis Control Programme, National Malaria Control Programme, National Blindness Control Programme, National Mental Health Programme

(C) National Malaria Control Programme, National Tuberculosis Control Programme, National Blindness Control programme, National Mental Health Programme

(D) National Tuberculosis Control Programe, National Blindness Control Programme, National Malaria Control Programme, National Mental Health Programme

Answer: (C)

34. Identify correct chronological order of committees for Health Planning

(A) Chadah Committee, Mukerji Committee, Jangalwala Committee, Shrivastav Committee

(B) Mukerji Committee, Chadah Committee, Jangalwala Committee, Shrivastav Committee

(C) Jangalwala Committee, Mukerji Committee, Chadah Committee, Shrivastav Commmittee

(D) Shrivastav Committee, Jangalwala Committee, Mukerji Committee, Chadah Committee

Answer: (A)

35. Identify correct chronological order of invention of vaccines:

(A) Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B, Rotavix, H1N1 influenza

(B) Hepatitis B, Hepatitis A, Rotavix, H1N1 influenza

(C) Rotavix, Hepatitis B, Hepatitis A, H1N1 influenza

(D) Rotavix, Hepatitis B, H1N1Influenza, Hepatitis A,

Answer: (B)

36. Identify descending order of incidence of low birth weight babies in the following countries:

(A) Pakistan, China, India, U.S.A.

(B) Pakistan, India, U.S.A., China

(C) India, Pakistan, China, U.S.A.

(D) India, Pakistan, U.S.A., China

Answer: (D)

37. Identify the child survival rate among the following countries from lowest to highest:

(A) Pakistan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, India

(B) Pakistan, Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka

(C) Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka

(D) Bangladesh, Pakistan, India, Sri Lanka

Answer: (C)

38. Identify the ‘Total Neonatal Mortality Rate’ of the following states in India (2006) from highest to lowest:

(A) Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Tamil Nadu

(B) Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Haryana

(C) Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu

(D) Madhya Pradesh, Haryana, Chhattisgarh, Tamil Nadu

Answer: (A)

39. Identify percentage distribution of causes of ‘Maternal Deaths’ (2001-2003) from highest to lowest

(A) Sepsis, Haemorrhage, Abortion, Obstructed Labour

(B) Obstructed Labour, Haemorrhage, Abortion, Sepsis

(C) Haemorrhage, Sepsis, Abortion, Obstructed Labour

(D) Sepsis, Haemorrhage, Obstructed Labour, Abortion

Answer: (C)

40. Identify the sitewise incidence of cancer in India among females from highest to lowest

(A) Cervix, Breast, Oesophagus, Mouth and Pharynx

(B) Breast, Cervix, Mouth and Pharynx, Oesophagus

(C) Cervix, Breast, Mouth and Pharynx, Oesophagus

(D) Breast, Cervix, Oesophagus Mouth and Pharynx,

Answer: (D)

Questions 41 to 50 are matching items. This consists of two lists of statements, terms or symbols and candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other.

41. List – I                              List – II

(Type of Vaccine)                   (Diseases)

(a) Live vaccine                       (i) Pertussis

(b) Killed vaccine                    (ii) B.C.G.

(c) Inactivated vaccine            (iii) Diphtheria

(d) Toxoid                               (iv) Rabies

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(B) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

(C) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

Answer: (D)

42. List – I      List – II

(Vaccinses)      (Routes)

(a) Measles      (i) Oral

(b) BCG          (ii) Subcutaneous

(c) DPT           (iii) Intradermal

(d) OPV          (iv) Intramuscular

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(B) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(C) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Answer: (D)

43. List – I                                          List – II

(Places)                                                (Population)

(a) Anganwadi                                                (i) 1,00,000

(b) Rural subcentre                              (ii) 1,000

(c) Primary Health Centre                   (iii) 5,000

(d) Community Health centre             (iv) 30,000

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(B) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(C) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

Answer: (A)

44. List – I                  List – II

(Diseases)                    (Methods of control)

(a) AIDS                     (i) Immunization

(b) Yaws                     (ii) Chemotheraphy

(c) Typhoid Fever       (iii) Use of Condom

(d) Tetanus                  (iv) Sanitation

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

Answer: (B)

45. List – I                              List – II

(Breeding Places)                    (Vector)

(a) Stagnant water                   (i) Anopheles

(b) Clear running water           (ii) Calex

(c) Water in cans                     (iii) Mansonia

(d) Water weeds                     (iv) Ades

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(C) (ii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(D) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

Answer: (B)

46. List – I                                          List – II

(Level of Prevention)                          (Strategy)

(a) Health promotion                           (i) Immunization

(b) Specific protection                        (ii) Blind School

(c) Early diagnosis and treatment       (iii) Nutrition Education

(d) Rehabilitation                                (iv) Case finding

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(B) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

Answer: (A)

47. List – I                                          List – II

(Recommended maximum limit of)    (Concentration)

(a) Lead                                               (i) 1.5 mg / litre

(b) Fluoride                                         (ii) 0.01 mg / litre

(c) Mercury                                         (iii) 50 mg / litre

(d) Nitrate                                           (iv) 0.001 mg / litre

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(D) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

Answer: (A)

48. List – I                                          List – II

(Diseases)                                            (Antibiotic used in chemoprophylaxis)

(a) Cholera                                          (i) Amantadine

(b) Bacterial conjunctivitis                  (ii) Tetracycline

(c) Meningococcal                               (iii) Erythromycin

(d) Meningities Influenza                   (iv) Sulphadiazine

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

Answer: (A)

49. List – I                  List – II

(Nutrient)                    (Rich sources)

(a) Iron                        (i) Amla

(b) Calcium                 (ii) Groundnuts

(c) Vitamin C              (iii) Ragi

(d) Niacin                    (iv) Green leafy vegetables

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Answer: (D)

50. List – I                  List – II

(Types of Dust)           (Pneumoconiosis)

(a) Coal                       (i) Bagassosis

(b) Cotton fibre           (ii) Farmer’s Lung

(c) Grain                      (iii) Anthracosis

(d) Sugar cane             (iv) Byssinosis

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(D) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

Answer: (A)


Year Wise Solved UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Previous Year Question Papers

Year Wise NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Solved question Papers from June 2006 till today are given below.

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UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2018 July
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2017 November
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2016 July
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2015 June
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2015 December
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2014 June
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2014 December
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2013 June
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2012 June
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2011 June
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2011 December
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2010 June
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2010 December
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2009 June
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2009 December
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2008 June
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2008 December
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2007 June
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2007 December
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2006 June
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2006 December
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2005 June
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2005 December
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2004 December

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