NTA UGC NET Psychology Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June

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NTA UGC NET Psychology Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June

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1. Match List-I with List-II and indicate your answer with the help of given codes.

List – I                                                List – II

(Task)                                                  (Type of memory)

p. Free recall and recognition              1. Semantic memory

q. Sentence verification task               2. Sensory memory

r. Priming                                            3. Episodic memory

s. Scanning task                                  4. Implicit memory

Codes:

p q r s

(A) 4 2 1 3

(B) 2 1 3 4

(C) 1 4 2 3

(D) 3 1 4 2

Answer: (D)

2. Development of Super-Ego, according to Freud is a result of

(A) Identification with the opposite sex parent

(B) Resolution of Oedipus/Electra complex

(C) Age advancement

(D) Anatomical superiority

Answer: (B)

3. Which of the following dimension/s do not belong to Costa and McCrae’s NEO-PI-R?

1. Conscientiousness

2. Psychoticism

3. Agreeableness

4. Lie scale

Codes:

(A) 2 only

(B) 2 and 4 only

(C) 1, 3 and 4 only

(D) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (B)

4. When information currently being learned adversely affects the retention of information acquired previously, the phenomena are referred to as:

(A) Distortion

(B) Retroactive interference

(C) Proactive interference

(D) Retrieval failure

Answer: (B)

5. Read the following two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Median is used as a measure of scale value in method of equal appearing intervals.

Reason (R): In normal distribution mean, median and mode are identical.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, (R) is true.

Answer: (B)

6. Assertion (A): Research suggests that delay conditioning is generally the most effective method for establishing a conditioned response.

Reason (R): Conditioned stimulus helps predict forthcoming presentation of the unconditioned stimulus.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (A)

7. Which of the following is not a cause of forgetting?

(A) Interference

(B) Decay

(C) Selective attention

(D) Retrieval inhibition

Answer: (C)

8. Which of the following attributions of an event with positive outcome shall be optimistic (non depressogenic)?

(A) Internal, stable and specific causes

(B) External, unstable and global causes

(C) Internal, stable and global causes

(D) External, unstable and specific causes

Answer: (C)

9. A child was classified as a case of mental retardation. On DSM IV / IV (TR), this diagnosis would be recorded on:

(A) Axis I

(B) Axis II

(C) Axis III

(D) Axis IV

Answer: (B)

10. Awareness of one’s own thought a process enabling effective learning through correction is called:

(A) Algorithm

(B) Analogies

(C) Meta cognition

(D) Constructive process

Answer: (C)

11. How many subjects would be required in a 3 × 3 × 2 factorial design with ten subjects per cell?

(A) 10

(B) 18

(C) 90

(D) 180

Answer: (D)

12. Mechanistic model of growth focuses on:

1. Role of environmental input and behaviour output.

2. Evolutionary origin

3. Quantitative increase in learned responses

Codes:

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1 and 3

(C) 2 and 3

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (B)

13. Selye largely ignored the contribution of one of the following in stress:

(A) Adrenal medulla

(B) Anterior pituitary

(C) Adrenal cortex

(D) Chronic psychological factors

Answer: (A)

14. Which of the following clinical procedure/s is/are not based on classical conditioning?

1. Flooding

2. Transference

3. Client centered therapy

4. Systematic desensitization

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1, 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (B)

15. Annual or semi-annual ratings of each employee’s performance, coupled with feedback about the ratings they receive are referred to as

(A) Performance appraisals

(B) Rating inventories

(C) Behaviourally anchored rating scales

(D) Graphic rating scales

Answer: (A)

16. Match List – I with List – II and indicate your answer using the codes given below:

List – I                                    List – II

(Hormones)                             (Synthesized from)

1. Steroidal hormones             P. An amino acid

2. Peptide hormones               Q. Long chain of amino acids

3. Protein hormones                R. Fat molecule

4. Amino acid derivates          S. Short chain of amino acids

Codes:

P Q R S

(A) 4 3 1 2

(B) 4 1 2 3

(C) 4 3 2 1

(D) 3 2 1 4

Answer: (A)

17. Arrange the following needs in accordance with Maslow’s hierarchy:

1. Esteem needs

2. Love – belongingness

3. Physiological needs

4. Safety needs

5. Self-actualization

(A) 3 2 1 4 5

(B) 3 2 4 1 5

(C) 3 4 1 2 5

(D) 3 4 2 1 5

Answer: (D)

18. What is true for the contention that we are normally driven to eat by the anticipated pleasure of eating?

(A) Set point theory

(B) Negative feedback system

(C) Positive incentive theory

(D) Homeostatis

Answer: (C)

19. What does reduce the problem distance between starting point and the goal?

(A) Normative – utilitarian

(B) Means – end analysis

(C) Normative – logical

(D) Heuristic short cuts

Answer: (B)

20. In an experiment if a light is repeatedly presented just before the electric shock is given the animal learns:

(A) Operant escape and then operant avoidance

(B) Operant avoidance and then operant escape

(C) Only operant escape

(D) Only operant avoidance

Answer: (C)

21. The contention that our facial expressions influence our emotional experience, attests to which of the following hypotheses?

(A) Universality hypothesis of facial expressions

(B) Emotional specificity hypothesis of ANS activity

(C) Emotional generality hypothesis of ANS activity

(D) Facial feedback hypothesis

Answer: (D)

22. Match List – I with List – II and indicate your answer with the help of given codes:

List – I                                                List – II

(Cognitive Process/System)                (Process/Locale)

p. feature based processing                 1. Right cerebral hemisphere

q. whole based processing                  2. Top down processing

r. abstract category system                  3. Bottom-up processing

s. specific exemplar subsystem           4. Left cerebral hemisphere

Codes:

p q r s

(A) 1 3 4 2

(B) 3 2 4 1

(C) 2 4 1 3

(D) 4 1 3 2

Answer: (B)

23. Match List – I with List – II and indicate your answer using the codes given below:

List – I                                                List – II

(Symptom)                                          (Disorder)

p. Waxy flexibility                              1. Agoraphobia

q. Rapid speech and flight of ideas    2. Schizophrenia

r. Excessive fear of crowded places   3. Narcolepsy

s. Cataplexy                                        4. Mania

Codes:

p q r s

(A) 3 4 1 2

(B) 3 2 4 1

(C) 4 2 1 3

(D) 2 4 1 3

Answer: (D)

24. In the two-way ANOVA, with A and B as the independent variables, if the F ratio computed as MSA×B/MSW is significant, it can be concluded that

1. Main effect of A is significant.

2. Main effect of B is significant.

3. Interaction effect is significant.

Codes:

(A) 3 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (A)

25. Which among the following is a reversible lesion?

(A) Cryogenic lesion

(B) Aspiration lesion

(C) Radio-Frequency lesion

(D) Knife cut lesion

Answer: (A)

26. Match List-I with List-II and indicate your answer with the help of codes given below:

List – I                        List – II

(Type of Bias)             (Decision)

p. Anchoring               1. Making estimates from an initial value

q. Hind sight               2. Adjusting past events by current knowledge

r. Framing                    3. Phrasing of situation guides biased decision

s. Representativeness 4. Most stereo typical exemplars are selected

Codes:

p q r s

(A) 2 1 4 3

(B) 1 3 2 4

(C) 2 3 4 1

(D) 1 2 3 4

Answer: (D)

27. Arrange different types of ‘Play’ in an increasing order of cognitive complexity:

1. Constructive

2. Dramatic

3. Functional

4. Games

(A) 2 1 3 4

(B) 2 3 1 4

(C) 1 2 3 4

(D) 1 3 2 4

Answer: (B)

28. Some people believe that certain objects bring luck and help them in being successful. Such superstitions may be the result of:

(A) Insight

(B) A program of behavior modification

(C) Auto Shaping

(D) Token economy systems

Answer: (C)

29. Assertion (A): Fear or stress prior to surgery has been associated with slower post-surgical recovery, including delays in wound healing.

Reason (R): Psychological factors can influence physical illness.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (B)

30. The way in which a child’s efforts to master a new or challenging task is supported in a flexible and contingent way by teachers, parents or more competent persons is called
(A) Scaffolding

(B) Social influence

(C) Social mediation

(D) Social referencing

Answer: (A)

31. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

Term in factor analysis Meaning /       Example

(A) Factor extraction method –          Principal axes

(B) Factor rotation method –              Promax

(C) Inter factor correlation –               Correlation between orthogonal factors

(D) Cattell’s scree –                            Plot to decide number of factors retain for interpretation

Answer: (C)

32. Choose the right sequence for stages of a sleep bout.

(A) II III IV REM

(B) III II REM II

(C) REM II III I

(D) I II III REM

Answer: (B)

33. Child using whole arm movement in writing before he uses his fingers in holding a pen or pencil is indicative of

(A) Proximo – Distal Principle

(B) Cephalo – Caudal Principle

(C) Specific movement

(D) Neural control

Answer: (A)

34. Principle stating that a more preferred activity can be used to reinforce a less preferred activity is referred to as:

(A) Trace conditioning

(B) Hull’s principle

(C) Principle of stimulus generalization

(D) Premack principle

Answer: (D)

35. According to Atkinson and Shiffrin model of human memory which of the following sequence of events is correct?

(A) Attention – sensory memory – short term memory – long term memory – elaborative rehearsal.

(B) Sensory memory – attention – short term memory – elaborative rehearsal – long term memory

(C) Attention – short term memory – sensory memory – elaborative rehearsal – long term memory

(D) Sensory memory – short term memory – attention – long term memory – elaborative rehearsal.

Answer: (B)

36. Attribution, the process by which we determine the causes behind other’s behaviour, involves focusing on which aspects of behaviour?

(A) Consensus, distinctiveness and attraction

(B) Distinctiveness, consistency and influence

(C) Consensus, consistency and distinctiveness

(D) Distinctiveness, influence and attraction

Answer: (C)

37. Deliberate application of known strategies to tasks, planning their use in advance, monitoring them in action, evaluating their output and modifying subsequent behaviour on the basis of performance is called.

(A) Self-regulated learning

(B) Implicit learning

(C) Deductive reasoning

(D) Cognitive learning

Answer: (A)

38. At what level do we understand the complete meaning and sense of a language structure?

(A) Phonemes

(B) Syntax

(C) Prosodic contour

(D) Morphemes

Answer: (C)

39. In terms of the percentage of common variance shared by the two variables, arrange the following co-relations in descending order:

1. 0.60

2. –0.50

3. –0.70

4. 0.40

(A) 3, 1, 2, 4

(B) 1, 4, 3, 2

(C) 1, 4, 2, 3

(D) 1, 3, 4, 2

Answer: (A)

40. What do characterize Rapid Eye Movement sleep?

1. Delta waves

2. Loss of muscle tone

3. Low voltage – high frequency waves

4. Higher cerebral activity

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1, 2 and 4

(C) 2, 3 and 4

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (C)

41. Threshold hypothesis indicates:

(A) Positive correlation between intelligence and creativity upto a particular level of intelligence.

(B) Negative correlation between intelligence and creativity upto a particular level of intelligence.

(C) Curvilinear relationship between intelligence and creativity after a particular level of intelligence.

(D) Negative correlation between intelligence and creativity after a particular level of intelligence

Answer: (A)

42. Using Sternberg’s theory as the reference, match List-I with List-II.

List – I                                    List – II

(Components)                         (Type)

p. Experiential             1. Analytic

q. Contextual              2. Creative

r. Componential          3. Practical

4. Successful

Codes:

p q r

(A) 3 4 2

(B) 2 3 1

(C) 4 2 3

(D) 2 1 3

Answer: (B)

43. Match List-I with List-II and indicate your answer with the help of the given codes:

List – I                                    List – II

(Type of Memory)                   (Type of Information)

p. echoic memory                    1. Episodic information

q. iconic memory                     2. Auditory information

r. auto biographical memory   3. Visual information

s. implicit memory                   4. priming

Codes:

p q r s

(A) 4 1 3 2

(B) 2 3 1 4

(C) 3 4 2 1

(D) 4 2 1 3

Answer: (B)

44. Which of the following illnesses caused by long term abuse of alcohol often involves profound retrograde amnesia?

(A) Alzheimer’s disease

(B) Parkinson’s disease

(C) Huntington’s disease

(D) Korsakoff’s disease

Answer: (D)

45. Applied behaviour analysis involves four steps. Which of the following two pairs are included?

1. Define and observe

2. Enumerate and reward

3. Observe and reinforce

4. Intervene and test

(A) (1) and (2) are correct.

(B) (1) and (4) are correct.

(C) (2) and (4) are correct.

(D) (3) and (4) are correct.

Answer: (B)

46. Match List-I with List-II and indicate your answer with the help of given codes:

List – I                                                List – II

(Route)                                                (Processing)

p. Central route to persuasion             1. Heuristic processing

q. Peripheral route to persuasion         2. Elaboration likelihood processing

r. Distinct routes to persuasion           3. Cognitive Dissonance

s. Attitude behaviour discrepancies    4. Systematic processing

Codes:

p q r s

(A) 4 1 2 3

(B) 3 2 4 1

(C) 1 2 4 3

(D) 2 4 3 1

Answer: (A)

Instructions for Questions 47 to 50: Read the following passage and answer the four questions that follow:

A psychologist developed a new Anxiety Inventory of 25 items. The Cronbach alpha for the inventory was found to be 0.80. The inventory was administered to a group of 50 anxiety disorder patients before beginning their psychotherapy. The patients had a significantly higher mean than the normative group of normal. The same group of patients was retested after 12 weeks of psychotherapy. The post-test mean was significantly lesser than the pre-test mean. The new Anxiety Inventory was correlated with an established anxiety inventory and the correlation turned out to be 0.20. The norms of the inventory were developed in terms of normalized T scores.

47. What would be the median T score for the new Anxiety Inventory?

(A) 50

(B) 100

(C) 120

(D) Inadequate data on median T score.

Answer: (A)

48. The above data indicate that the new inventory has

(A) Satisfactory parallel form reliability

(B) Unsatisfactory parallel form reliability

(C) Satisfactory concurrent validity

(D) Unsatisfactory concurrent validity

Answer: (D)

49. What can you infer about the internal consistency reliability of the new inventory?

(A) Satisfactory internal consistency reliability

(B) Unsatisfactory internal consistency reliability

(C) Split-half reliability needs to be computed first to infer about internal consistency.

(D) Inadequate data in the above passage to infer about internal consistency.

Answer: (A)

50. The above data indicate that the new inventory has

(A) Unsatisfactory construct validity

(B) Satisfactory construct validity

(C) Unsatisfactory test-retest reliability

(D) Satisfactory test-retest reliability

Answer: (B)

51. Which one of the following theories predicts that work motivation will be low if an employee perceives that an increased effort will have little, or no effect on his/her performance?

(A) Just-world theory

(B) Need-drive theory

(C) Expectancy theory

(D) Normative theory

Answer: (C)

52. Assertion (A): If higher order factor analysis is to be carried out, first order factors should not be subjected to varimax rotation.

Reason (R): Varimax rotation provides oblique factors.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (C)

53. Where are oxytocin and vasopressin hormones synthesized?

(A) Posterior pituitary

(B) Anterior pituitary

(C) Gonads

(D) Hypothalamus

Answer: (D)

54. Match List-I with List-II.

List – I                                    List – II

(Concept)                                (Psychologist)

p. Parenting styles                   1. Bowlby

q. Attachment                                     2. Piaget

r. Reciprocal Determinism      3. Bandura

s. Centration                            4. Baumrind

Codes:

p q r s

(A) 2 1 4 3

(B) 2 4 1 3

(C) 4 1 3 2

(D) 4 2 3 1

Answer: (C)

55. Which of the following is not a component of Emotional Intelligence as described by Mayer and Salovey.

1. The ability to use emotions to facilitate thinking.

2. The ability to perceive, appraise and express emotions accurately.

3. The ability to perceive, appraise and express emotions appropriately.

4. The ability to adapt to new and different contexts, select appropriate contexts and effectively shape one’s environment to suit one’s needs.

Codes:

(A) 4 only

(B) 1 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 4

(D) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (A)

56. Which of the following are the characteristics of Cattell’s Culture Fair Intelligence Test?

1. Speed

2. Power

3. Non-verbal

4. Performance

Codes:

(A) 1 and 3

(B) 1, 2 and 3

(C) 1, 2 and 4

(D) 1 and 2

Answer: (B)

57. Technique of shaping is based on which of the following principle?

(A) Reciprocal inhibition

(B) Response inhibition

(C) Stimulus discrimination

(D) Successive approximation

Answer: (D)

58. What did Chomsky not argue about language development?

(A) There is a universal grammar.

(B) It is genetically wired.

(C) There is an innate modular language.

(D) It is based on reinforced learning.

Answer: (D)

59. What are the two types of declarative memory given by Edel Tulving?

(A) Episodic and semantic

(B) Semantic and procedural

(C) Reconstructive and semantic

(D) Procedural and reconstructive

Answer: (A)

60. Assertion (A): Illusions are instances in which perception yields false interpretation of physical reality.

Reason (R): Theory of misapplied constancy suggests that when looking at illusions, we interpret certain cues as suggesting that some parts are farther than others because of our powerful tendency toward size constancy.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (A)

61. Match List-I with List-II and indicate your answer using the codes given below.

List – I                        List – II

(Psychologists)            (Measures)

1. Buss                        P. Aggression machine

2. Milgram                   Q. Picture- Frustration Study

3. Rosenzweig             R. State-trait Anger Inventory

4. Spielberger              S. Obedience Laboratory- Shock generator

Codes:

P Q R S

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 1 3 4 2

(C) 2 4 3 1

(D) 4 1 2 3

Answer: (B)

62. Components of empathy are:

(A) Perceiving and Advancing

(B) Advancing and Interpreting

(C) Judging and Communicating

(D) Perceiving and Communicating

Answer: (D)

63. Assertion (A): Paper-pencil self-report personality inventories are very useful in personnel selection.

Reason (R): In selection situation, paper-pencil, self-report inventories are sensitive to impression management.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, (R) is true.

Answer: (D)

64. Which of the following statements would be false about multiple correlations?

1. It ranges from – 1.00 to 1.00 only.

2. It ranges from 0 to 1.00 only.

3. It ranges from –¥ to +¥

4. It ranges from –1.00 to 0 only

Codes:

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (D)

65. Which of the following components have been proposed by Torrance?

1. Divergent thinking

2. Elaboration

3. Transformation

4. Flexibility

Codes:

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 2 and 4

(D) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (C)

66. Which of the following strategies are used to gain compliance?

1. Ingratiation and commitment

2. Reciprocity and obedience

3. Reciprocity and scarcity

4. Respect and ingratiation

Codes:

(A) 1 and 2 are correct.

(B) 2 and 4 are correct.

(C) 3 and 4 are correct.

(D) 1 and 3 are correct.

Answer: (D)

67. Which is not the component of Kluver-Bucy syndrome following the removal of anterior temporal lobes?

(A) Rejection of anything that is edible.

(B) A tendency to investigate objects with the mouth.

(C) Lack of fear.

(D) Increased sexual activity often directed at inappropriate objects.

Answer: (A)

68. Arrange the following tests in increasing order of their saturation on projective criteria.

1. Thematic Apperception Test

2. Differential Aptitude Test

3. Rorschach Ink Blot Test

4. Incomplete Sentence Blank

(A) 3 1 2 4

(B) 2 4 3 1

(C) 3 1 4 2

(D) 2 4 1 3

Answer: (D)

69. A listener totally rejects the conclusion that the death penalty is justified for the purpose of preventing further social evil despite he cannot readily refute the premises the speaker is presenting for his conclusion. His reasoning is biased. Why?

(A) Due to his mood states

(B) Due to his beliefs

(C) Confirmation bias

(D) Hindsight

Answer: (B)

70. Jensen uses Regression argument to account for:

(A) Genetic contribution in abilities

(B) Context specific abilities

(C) Group differences in intelligence

(D) Age related changes in intelligence

Answer: (C)

71. Assertion (A): Working memory involves both storage capacity and the capacity to process information held in the memory system.

Reason (R): The serial position effect provides evidence for the existence of two distinct memory systems, working memory and long term memory.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (A)

72. In the multiple components model of working memory, the Central Executive supervises and coordinates the functioning of which of the components?

1. Episodic information and procedural information.

2. Phonological loop and visuospatial sketch pad

3. Procedural information and abstract semantic information.

4. Semantic information and episodic information.

(A) 1 and 2 are correct.

(B) 1 and 4 are correct.

(C) 2 and 3 are correct.

(D) 2 and 4 are correct.

Answer: (C)

73. Bio feedback therapy is based on which of the following?

(A) Classical conditioning

(B) Observational learning

(C) Operant conditioning

(D) Cognitive learning

Answer: (C)

74. Assertion (A): People go out of ther way to maintain self-esteem and to sustain the integrity of their self-concept.

Reason (R): “Self-handicapping” is a deliberate attempt to sabotage one’s performance so as to have a readymade excuse for failure.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (B)

75. According to Freud, different types of anxiety are:

1. Neurotic anxiety

2. State anxiety

3. Moral anxiety

4. Reality anxiety

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only

(B) 1, 2 and 4 only

(C) 1, 3 and 4 only

(D) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (C)


Year Wise Solved UGC NET Psychology Paper 3 Previous Year Question Papers

The old UGC NET Examination paper-3 in Psychology was of descriptive type till December 2011.

Paper 3 becomes the objective type from June 2012 to November 2017. From July 2018 onward, paper 3 was stopped and becomes part of paper 2 itself.

So, the old questions for paper 3 from June 2012 to November 2017 which were of objective type (multiple choice questions) can be used by the UGC NET aspirants for their better preparation for paper 2.

Year Wise NTA UGC NET Psychology Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are given below.

Download Year Wise NTA UGC NET Psychology Paper 3 Solved Paper
UGC NET Psychology Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2017 November
UGC NET Psychology Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2016 July
UGC NET Psychology Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 June
UGC NET Psychology Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 December
UGC NET Psychology Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 June
UGC NET Psychology Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 December
UGC NET Psychology Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 December
UGC NET Psychology Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 September
UGC NET Psychology Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 June
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UGC NET Psychology Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June

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