# NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2014 June

NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2014 June: With the NTA UGC NET Exam around the corner, you need to practice the NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Previous Year Question Paper.

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## NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2014 June

NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Papers are considered the best study materials to score good marks in the paper 1 exam.

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You can check the complete NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2014 June.

1. Break-down in verbal communication is described as

(A) Short Circuit

(C) Unevenness

(D) Entropy

2. The Telephone Model of Communication was first developed in the area of

(A) Technological theory

(B) Dispersion theory

(C) Minimal effects theory

(D) Information theory

3. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for 2013 has been conferred on

(A) Karan Johar

(B) Amir Khan

(C) Asha Bhonsle

(D) Gulzar

4. Photographs are not easy to

(A) Publish

(B) Secure

(C) Decode

(D) Change

5. The grains that appear on a television set when operated are also referred to as

(A) Sparks

(B) Green Dots

(C) Snow

(D) Rain Drops

6. In circular communication, the encoder becomes a decoder when there is

(A) Noise

(B) Audience

(C) Criticality

(D) Feedback

7. In a post-office, stamps of three different denominations of Rs 7, Rs 8, Rs 10 are available. The exact amount for which one cannot buy stamps is

(A) 19

(B) 20

(C) 23

(D) 29

8. In certain coding method, the word QUESTION is encoded as DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is the code word for the word RESPONSE?

(A) OMESUCEM

(B) OMESICSM

(C) OMESICEM

(D) OMESISCM

9. lf the series 4,5,8,13,14,17,22,…….. is continued in the same pattern, which one of the following is not a term of this series?

(A) 31

(B) 32

(C) 33

(D) 35

10. Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML, PP: ..:……..by choosing one of the following option given :

(A) TS

(B) ST

(C) RS

(D) SR

11. A man started walking frorn his house towards south. After walking 6 km, he turned to his left walked 5 Km after. Then he walked further 3 km after turning left. He then turned to his left and continued his walk for 9 km. How far is he away from his house?

(A) 3 km

(B) 4 km

(C) 5 km

(D) 6 km

12. One writes all numbers from 50 to 99 without the digits 2 and 7. How many numbers have been written?

(A) 32

(B) 36

(C) 40

(D) 38

13. “lf a large diamond is cut up into little bits it will lose its value just as an army is divided up into small units of soldiers. It loses its strength.” The argument put above may be called as

(A) Analogical

(B) Deductive

(C) Statistical

(D) Casual

14. Given below are some characteristics of logical argument. Select the code which expresses a characteristic which is not of inductive in character.

(A) The conclusion is claimed to follow from its premises.

(B) The conclusion is based on causal relation.

(C) The conclusion conclusively follows from its premises.

(D) The conclusion is based on observation and experiment

15. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms can both be true but cannot both be false, the relation between those two propositions is called

(B) contrary

(C) subcontrary

(D) subaltern

16. Given below are two premises and four conclusions drawn from those premises. Select the code that expresses conclusion drawn validly from the premises (separately or jointly).

Premises:

(a) All dogs are mammals.

(b) No cats are dogs.

Conclusions:

(i) No cats are mammals

(ii) Some cats are mammals.

(iii) No Dogs are cats

(iv) No dogs are non-mammals.

Codes:

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii)

(C) (iii) and (iv)

(D) (ii) and (iii)

17. Given below is a diagram of three circles A, B & C inter-related with each of Indians. The circle B represents the class of scientists and circle C represents the class of politicians. p,q,r,s… represent different regions. Select the code containing the region that indicates the class of Indian scientists who are not politicians.

(A) q and s only

(B) s only

(C) s and r only

(D) p, q and s only

Read the following table and answer question no 18-22 based on table

 Year Government Canals Private Canals Tanks Tube wells and other wells Other sources Total 1997-98 17117 211 2593 32090 3102 55173 1998-99 17093 212 2792 33988 3326 57411 1999-00 16842 194 2535 34623 2915 57109 2000-01 15748 203 2449 33796 2880 55076 2001-02 15031 209 2179 34906 4347 56672 2002-03 13863 206 1802 34250 3657 53778 2003-04 14444 206 1908 35779 4281 56618 2004-05 14696 206 1727 34785 7453 58867 2005-06 15268 207 2034 35372 7314 60196

18. Which of the following sources of Irrigation has registered the largest percentage of decline in Net area under irrigation during 1997-98 and 2005-06 ?

(A) Government Canals

(B) Private Canals

(C) Tanks

(D) Other Sources

19. Find out the source of irrigation that has registered the maximum improvement in terms of percentage of Net irrigated area during 2002-03 and 2003-04.

(A) Government Canals

(B) Tanks

(C) Tube Wells and other wells

(D) Other Sources

20. In which of the following years, Net irrigation by tanks increased at the highest rate?

(A) 1998-99

(B) 2000-01

(C) 2003-04

(D) 2005-06

21. Identify the source of irrigation that has recorded the maximum incidence of negative growth in terms of Net irrigated area during the years given in the table.

(A) Government Canals

(B) Private Canals

(C) Tube Wells and other wells

(D) Other sources

22. In which of the following years, share of the tube wells and other wells in the total net irrigated area was the highest?

(A) 1998-99

(B) 2000-01

(C) 2002-03

(D) 2004-05

23. The acronym FTP stands for

(A) File Transfer Protocol

(B) Fast Transfer Protocol

(C) File Tracking Protocol

(D) File Transfer Procedure

24. Which one of the following is not a/an image/graphic file format?

(A) PNG

(B) GIF

(C) BMP

(D) GUI

25. The first Web Browser is

(A) Internet Explorer

(B) Netscape

(C) World Wide Web

(D) Firefox

26. When a computer is booting, BIOS is loaded to the memory by

(A) RAM

(B) ROM

(C) CD-ROM

(D) TCP

27. Which one of the following is not the same as the other three?

28. Identify the IP address from the following

(A) 300 .215.317.3

(B) 302.215@417.5

(C) 202.50.20.148

(D) 202-50-20-148

29. The population of India is about 1.2 billion. Take the average consumption of energy per person per year in India as 30 Mega Joules. If this consumption is met by carbon based fuels and the rate of carbon emissions per kilojoule is l5 x I06 kgs, the total carbon emissions per year from India will be

(A) 54 million metric tons

(B) 540 million metric tons

(C) 5400 million metric tons

(D) 2400 million metric tons

30. Which of the following cities has been worst affected by urban smog in recent times?

(A) Paris

(B) London

(C) Los Angeles

(D) Beijing

31. The primary source of organic pollution in fresh water bodies is

(A) run-off urban areas

(B) run-off from agricultural forms

(C) sewage effluents

(D) industrial effluents

32. ‘Lahar’ is a natural disaster involving

(A) eruption of large amount of material

(B) strong winds

(C) strong water waves

(D) strong wind and water waves

33. In order to avoid catastrophic consequences of climate change, there is general agreement among the countries of the world to limit the rise in average surface temperature of earth compared to that of pre-industrial times by

(A) 1.5 oC to 2 oC

(B) 2.0 oC to 3.5 oC

(C) 0.5 oC to 1.0 oC

(D) 0.25 oC to 0.5 oC

34. The National Disaster Management Authority functions under the Union Ministry of

(A) Environment

(B) Water Resources

(C) Home Affairs

(D) Defence

35. Match List – I and List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                    List – II

(a) Flood                     (1) Lack of rainfall of sufficient duration

(b) Drought                 (2) Tremors produced by the passage of vibratory waves through the rocks of the earth

(c) Earthquake             (3) A vent through which molted substances come out

(d) Valcano                 (4) Excess rain and uneven distribution of water

Codes:

(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)

(A)       4          1          2          3

(B)       2          3          4          1

(C)       3          4          2          1

(D)       4          3          1          2

36. Which one of the following green house gases has the shortest residence time in the atmosphere?

(A) Chlorofluorocarbon

(B) Carbon dioxide

(C) Methane

(D) Nitrous oxide

37. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below:

(i) Rajasthan receives the highest solar radiation in the country.

(ii) India has the fifth largest installed wind power in the world.

(iii) The maximum amount of wind power is contributed by Tamil Nadu.

(iv) The primary source of uranium in India is Jaduguda.

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(C) (ii) and (iii)

(D) (i) and (iv)

38. Who among the following is the defacto executive head of the planning Commission?

(A) Chairman

(B) Deputy Chairman

(C) Minister of State of Planning

(D) Member Secretary

39. Education as a subject of legislation figures in the

(A) Union List

(B) State List

(C) Concurrent List

(D) Residuary Powers

40. Which of the following are Central Universities?

1. Pondicherry University

2. Vishwa Bharati

3. H.N.B. Garhwal University

4. Kurukshetra University

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1, 3 and 4

(C) 2, 3 and 4

(D) 1, 2 and 4

41. Consider the statement which ls followed by two arguments (i) and (ii).

Statement: India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal.

Arguments: (i) Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in bureaucracy.

(ii) No; it will discourage honest officers from making quick decisions.

Codes:

(A) Only argument (i) is strong.

(B) Only argument (ii) is strong.

(C) Both the arguments are strong.

(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.

42. Which of the following universities has adopted the meta university concept?

(A) Assam University

(B) Delhi University

(D) Pondicherry University

43. Which of the following statements are correct about a Central University?

1. Central University is established under an Act of Parliament.

2. The President of India acts as the visitor of the University.

3. President has the power to nominate some members to the Executive Committee or the Board of Management of the University.

4. The President occasionally presides over the meetings of the Executive Committee or Court.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Codes:

(A) 1, 2 and 4

(B) 1, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

44. Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated teaching?

(A) Students asking questions

(B) Maximum attendance of the students

(C) Pin drop silence in the classroom

(D) Students taking notes

45. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching?

(A) Lecture

(B) Discussion

(C) Demonstration

(D) Narration

46. Dyslexia is associated with

(A) mental disorder

(B) behavioural disorder

(D) writing disorder

47. The e-content generation for undergraduate courses has been assigned by the Ministry of Human Resource Development to

(A) INFLIBNET

(B) Consortium for Educational Communication

(C) National Knowledge Commission

(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University

48. Classroom communication is normally considered as

(A) effective

(B) cognitive

(C) affective

(D) selective

49. Who among the following propounded the concept of paradigm?

(A) Peter Haggett

(B) Von Thunen

(C) Thomas Kuhn

(D) John K. Wright

50. In a thesis, figures and tables are included in

(A) The appendix

(B) A separate chapter

(C) The concluding chapter

(D) The text itself

51. A thesis statement is

(A) an observation

(B) a fact

(C) an assertion

(D) a discussion

52.  The research approach of Max Weber to understand how people create meanings in natural settings is identified as

53. Which one of the following is a non probability sampling?

(A) Simple Random

(B) Purposive

(C) Systematic

(D) Stratified

54. Identify the category of evaluation that assesses the learning progress to provide continuous feedback to the students during instruction.

(A) Placement

(B) Diagnostic

(C) Formative

(D) Summative

55. The research stream of immediate application is

(A) Conceptual research

(B) Action research

(C) Fundamental research

(D) Empirical research

Instructions: Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 56 to 60:

Traditional Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual and from that of the geographically delimited agglomeration of peoples or groups enjoying a common system of leadership which we call the ‘State’. The Indian ‘State’s’ special feature is the peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existence of social groups of various historical provenances which manually adhere in a geographical, economic and political sense, without ever assimilating to each other in social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language. Modern Indian law will determine certain rules, especially in relation to the regime of the family, upon the basis of hwo the loin-cloth is tied, or how the turban is worn, for this may identify the litigants as members of a regional group, and therefore as participants in it traditional law, though their ancestors left the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the word ‘State’ above must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a conflict between the individual and the State, at least before foreign governments became established, just as there was no concept of state ‘sovereignty’ or of any church-and-state dichotomy.

Modem Indian ‘secularism’ has an admittedly peculiar feature: It requires the state to make a fair distribution of attention amongst all religions. These blessed aspects of India’s famed tolerance (Indian kings to rarely persecuted religious groups that the exceptions prove the rule) at once struck Portuguese and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the sixteenth century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways gave rise, at one remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas More’s Utopia. There is little about modern India that strikes one at once as Utopian but the insistence upon the inculcation of norms, and the absense of bigotry and  institutionalized exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very different features which link the realities of India and her tradition with the essence of all Utopians.

56. Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian state?

(A) peaceful co-existence of people under a common system of leadership

(B) peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to each other in a geographical, economical and political sense

(C) Social integration of all groups

(D) Cultural assimilation of all social groups

57. The author uses the word ‘State’ to highlight

(A) Antagonistic relationship between the state and the individual throughout the period of history.

(B) Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in time.

(C) The concept of state sovereignty

(D) Dependence of religion

58. Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian ‘secularism’?

(A) No discrimination on religious considerations

(B) Total indifference to religion

(C) No space for social identity

(D) Disregard for social law

59. The basic construction of Thomas More’s Utopia was inspired by

(A) Indian tradition of religious tolerance

(B) Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers

(C) Social inequality in India

(D) European perception of Indian State

60. What is the striking feature of modern India?

(A) A replica of Utopian State

(B) Uniform Laws

(D) Absense of Bigotry

## Year Wise NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Papers

To score better marks in the NTA UGC NET Paper 1, you should have depth knowledge of the entire subject.

You can boost your preparation by referring to NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Question Paper 2014 June. It will give you information about the important chapters and concepts covered in all chapters.

Year Wise NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved question Papers from June 2006 till today are given below.

## Importance of NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2014 June

NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2014 June have the following benefits:

• Practising NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2014 June will make you understand the changes this exam has undergone in the past.
• NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2014 June will help you understand the exact nature of the exam.
• Attempting the NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Question Paper 2014 June will help you track the time spent in solving the paper and your level of efficiency. This will be of huge advantage in the actual exam.
• You will know the nature of questions that can be expected in the UGC NET Paper 1 Examination.
• It contains concept clearing questions that build your fundamentals of Mathematics strong.
• You gain speed and confidence by solving more questions from Previous Years Question papers.

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