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NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2013 September
NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Papers are considered the best study materials to score good marks in the paper 1exam. Practicing these NTA UGC NET Paper 1 previous year question papers assist the students in getting a clear idea about the question paper pattern and types of questions asked in the exam.
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1. The world population growth rate at a certain reference year was 3.5%. Assuming exponential growth of population, after how many years, the population of the world would have increased by a factor 16 ?
(A) ~ 80 years
(B) ~ 40 years
(C) ~ 160 years
(D) ~ 320 years
Answer:Â (A)
2. Telephone is an example of
(A) linear communication
(B) non-linear communication
(C) circular
(D) mechanised
Answer:Â (A)
3. Means of grapevine communication are
(A) formal
(B) informal
(C) critical
(D) corporate
Answer:Â (B)
4. Communication issues at the international level are addressed by
(A) ILO
(B) ITU
(C) UNDP
(D) UNESCO
Answer:Â (D)
5. Referential framing used by TV audience connects media with
(A) reality
(B) falsity
(C) negativity
(D) passivity
Answer:Â (A)
6. The communicated knowledge in a classroom is considered as
(A) non-pervasive treasure
(B) limited judgement
(C) autonomous virtue
(D) cultural capital
Answer:Â (D)
7. Classroom communication is normally considered as
(A) effective
(B) affective
(C) cognitive
(D) non-selective
Answer:Â (C)
8. A person writes all the numbers from 0 to 99. The number of times digit 3 will be written is
(A) 18
(B) 19
(C) 20
(D) 21
Answer:Â (C)
9. Starting from point A, Ajit walks 14 metres towards west, he then turns to his right and walks 14 metres and then turns to his left and walks 10 metres. He again turns to his left and walks 14 metres and reaches to the point E. The shortest distance between A and E is
(A) 38
(B) 42
(C) 52
(D) 24
Answer:Â (D)
10. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table. A is between E and F. E is opposite to D and C is not in either of the neighbouring seats of E. The person opposite to B is
(A) C
(B) D
(C) A
(D) F
Answer:Â (D)
11. The missing term in the series 2, 7, 24, 77, ?, 723 is
(A) 238
(B) 432
(C) 542
(D) 320
Answer:Â (A)
12. In certain city the Taxi charges comprise of a fixed charge and the charge of the distance travelled. A person paid ` 156 for a journey of 16 km and another person paid ` 204 for the journey of 24 km. The amount paid by a passenger who has travelled 30 km is
(A) 236
(B) 240
(C) 248
(D) 256
Answer:Â (B)
13. In certain code HEALTH is written as KHDOWK. The code of NORTH will be
(A) QRUWK
(B) RQWUK
(C) RWQUK
(D) RWUKQ
Answer:Â (A)
14. Yadav, Arjun, Rajesh and Kamal play cricket. Rajesh and Kamal play tennis but do not play football. Yadav does not play Badminton but play golf. Arjun does not play tennis. Kamal sometimes plays Badminton. Who does play only cricket ?
(A) Yadav
(B) Arjun
(C) Rajesh
(D) Kamal
Answer:Â (B)
15. A deductive argument can not be valid :
(A) If its premise / premises is/are true and its conclusion is true.
(B) If its premise / premises is /are true and its conclusion is false.
(C) If its premise / premises is/are false and its conclusion is false.
(D) If its premise / premises is / are false and its conclusion is true.
Answer:Â (B)
16. An analogical argument is strengthened by
(A) making the claim bolder while its premises remain unchanged.
(B) reducing the claim made on the basis of the premises affirmed.
(C) remaining the claim unchanged while the evidence in its support is found to exhibit greater frailty.
(D) None of the above.
Answer:Â (B)
17. If two propositions cannot both be false but may both be true, what is the relation between the two propositions ?
(A) Contrary
(B) Sub-contrary
(C) Sub-alternation
(D) Contradictory
Answer:Â (B)
18. Given below are some codes of arrangements of three items in order of wider scope. Select the correct code.
(A) Garments, cloth and shirts
(B) Cloth, garments and shirts
(C) Shirts, garments and cloth
(D) Garments, shirts and cloth
Answer:Â (B)
19. What is equivalent of the statement ‘All atheists are pessimists’ ?
(A) All non-pessimists are nonatheists.
(B) All non-atheists are nonpessimists.
(C) All pessimists are atheists.
(D) None of the above.
Answer:Â (A)
In the following table, trends in production of energy in India by primary sources are given. Study the table and answer Question Nos. 20 to 23 : (Production in peta Joules)
20. In which year primary sources recorded the lowest growth in total production of energy ?
(A) 2007–08
(B) 2008–09
(C) 2009–10
(D) 2010–11
Answer:Â (C)
21. Which source of energy has shown the highest growth rate in production during 2006-07 to 2010-11 ?
(A) Coal & lignite
(B) Crude petroleum
(C) Hydro & nuclear electricity
(D) Total production of energy
Answer:Â (A)
22. Which one of the following primary sources of energy has recorded the highest growth in production in 2008–09 ?
(A) Coal & lignite
(B) Crude petroleum
(C) Natural gas
(D) Hydro & nuclear electricity
Answer:Â (A)
23. In which year, production of hydro and nuclear electricity was almost double the production of crude petroleum and natural gas taken together ?
(A) 2006–07
(B) 2007–08
(C) 2008–09
(D) 2009–10
Answer:Â (C)
24. The Internet ethical protocol is called
(A) net protocol
(B) netiquette
(C) net ethics
(D) net morality
Answer:Â (B)
25. Commercial messages on the net are identified as
(A) Net ads
(B) Internet commercials
(C) Webmercials
(D) Viral advertisements
Answer:Â (C)
26. Manuel Castelle was the first to use the term
(A) Internet society
(B) Electronic society
(C) Network society
(D) Telematic society
Answer:Â (C)
27. GIF stands for
(A) Global Information Format
(B) Graphics Information Format
(C) Graphics Interchange File
(D) Graphics Interchange Format
Answer:Â (D)
28. Which one of the following is not an Operating System ?
(A) IBM AIX
(B) Linux
(C) Sun Solaris
(D) Firefox
Answer:Â (D)
29. Which of the following is/are a minority institution(s) ?
1. Punjabi University, Patiala
2. Osmania University, Hyderabad
3. Kashmir University, Srinagar
4. St. Stephens College, Delhi
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 2 only
(D) 4 only
Answer:Â (D)
30. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Advisory Council (NAC) ?
1. The National Advisory Council is a statutory body.
2. It is headed by the Prime Minister of India.
3. It facilitates constant interaction with the leaders of civil society.
4. It provides policy and legislative inputs to the Government of India.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 3 and 4
Answer:Â (D)
31. Which of the following are voluntary provisions in the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) ?
1. Minimum age of 21 for contesting elections to Panchayats.
2. Indirect elections to the post of Chairperson of Panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
3. Representation of Members of Parliament and State Legislature on Panchayati Raj institutions.
4. Reservation of seats for backward classes.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
Answer:Â (D)
32. In which of the following States the segment of population, which is in majority, enjoys the benefit of reservation of seats in the State Assembly ?
(A) Meghalaya and Mizoram
(B) Assam and Nagaland
(C) Madhya Pradesh and Assam
(D) Rajasthan and Arunachal Pradesh
Answer:Â (A)
33. Which of the following are the ways of acquiring Indian citizenship ?
1. Birth
2. Descent
3. Naturalisation
4. Incorporation of territory
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer:Â (D)
34. Which of the following statements about the Union Public Service Commission are correct ?
1. UPSC is a Constitutional body.
2. It serves as an advisory body.
3. It is called upon to advise the Government in regard to representation of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Civil Service.
4. It is consulted on appointments of Chairman and members of Tribunals and Commissions.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 2
Answer:Â (D)
Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. from 35 to 40 :
I had occasion to work with her closely during the Women’s International Year in 1975 when she was chairing a Steering Committee and made me the member in charge of publicity. Representatives from different political parties and women’s organizations were on the committee and though the leftists claimed a sort of proprietary right over her, Aruna encouraged and treated all members alike. It was not her political affiliations or her involvement in a particular cause, which won her respect and recognition, but her utter honesty in public life, her integrity and her compassion for the oppressed which made her an adorable person. She had the courage to differ with and defy the mightiest in the land; yet her human spirit prompted her to work in the worst of slums to offer succour to the poor and the exploited.
In later years – around late eighties and early nineties – Aruna Asaf Ali’s health began to deteriorate. Though her mind remained alert, she could not actively take up her pet causes – action for women’s advancement, planning for economic justice, role of media, reaffirmation of values in public affairs etc. Slowly, her movements were restricted and Aruna who had drawn sustenance from common people, from her involvement in public life, became a lonely person. She passed away in July 1996.
35. Which Committee was chaired by Aruna ?
(A) Women’s International Year’s Committee
(B) Steering Committee of Women’s International Year
(C) A Committee of Publicity
(D) Women’s Organizations
Answer:Â (B)
36. Who were made the members of the Committee of Publicity ?
Choose the answer from codes given below :
(i) Representatives from different political parties.
(ii) Representatives from the leftist parties.
(iii) Representatives from the women’s organizations.
(iv) None of the above.
Codes :
(A) (i), (iii)
(B) (i), (ii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii)
(D) (iv)
Answer:Â (A)
37. Aruna earned respect because of
(A) she identified with the leftists
(B) she did not associate with any political party
(C) chairing a Steering Committee
(D) she identified with women’s organizations
Answer:Â (B)
38. Who tried to monopolize Aruna as their proprietary right ?
(A) Women Organizations
(B) Leftists
(C) Steering Committee
(D) Some Political Parties
Answer:Â (B)
39. Aruna’s health began to deteriorate from
(A) 1985 – 2002
(B) 1998 – 2000
(C) 1981 – 2000
(D) 1989 – 2001
Answer:Â (C)
40. Aruna’s pet cause(s) in her life was/ were
(A) Role of media
(B) Economic justice
(C) Reaffirmation of values in public affairs
(D) All the above
Answer:Â (D)
41. A good teacher must be
(A) resourceful and autocratic
(B) resourceful and participative
(C) resourceful and authoritative
(D) resourceful and dominant
Answer:Â (B)
42. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching ?
(A) Lecture method
(B) Discussion method
(C) Demonstration method
(D) Question-Answer method
Answer:Â (C)
43. Successful Communication in classroom teaching is
(A) Circular
(B) Reciprocal
(C) Directional
(D) Influential
Answer:Â (B)
44. Which one of the following types of evaluation assesses the learning progress to provide continuous feedback to both teachers and students during instruction ?
(A) Placement evaluation
(B) Formative evaluation
(C) Diagnostic evaluation
(D) Summative
Answer:Â (B)
45. Which one of the following is a scaled down teaching situation ?
(A) Macro teaching
(B) Team teaching
(C) Cooperative teaching
(D) Micro teaching
Answer:Â (D)
46. CLASS stands for
(A) Complete Literacy and Studies in Schools
(B) Computer Literates and Students in Schools
(C) Computer Literacy and Studies in Schools
(D) Centre for Literacy and Studies in Schools
Answer:Â (C)
47. Which one of the following is not a type of experimental method ?
(A) Single group experiment
(B) Residual group experiment
(C) Parallel group experiment
(D) Rational group experiment
Answer:Â (B)
48. Which one of the following is not a non-parametric test ?
(A) t-test
(B) Sign test
(C) Chi-square test
(D) Run test
Answer:Â (A)
49. Read the following statements – one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Qualitative research in India has a long way to go to reach international standards.
Reason (R) : Because the funding agencies do not support qualitative research in academic institutions.
Find the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer:Â (C)
50. Identify the correct sequence of research steps :
(A) Selection of topic, review of literature, data collection, interpretation of findings
(B) Review of literature, selection of topic, data collection, interpretation of findings
(C) Selection of topic, data collection, review of literature, interpretation of findings
(D) Selection of topic, review of literature, interpretation of findings, data collection
Answer:Â (A)
51. Deconstruction is a popular method of research in
(A) Basic Science
(B) Applied Science
(C) Social Science
(D) Literature
Answer:Â (D)
52. With which one of the following techniques communality is associated ?
(A) Univariate analysis
(B) Factor analysis
(C) Case studies
(D) SWOT analysis
Answer:Â (B)
53. The variable which impacts the relationship between an independent variable and a dependent variable is known as
(A) antecedent variable
(B) precedent variable
(C) predictor variable
(D) control variable
Answer:Â (D)
54. Which one of the following is a nonprobability sampling method ?
(A) Simple Random Sampling
(B) Stratified Sampling
(C) Cluster Sampling
(D) Quota Sampling
Answer:Â (D)
55. By the year 22, the Climate Change Action Plan of Government of India aims at installing
(A) 20,000 MW of wind power
(B) 25,000 MW of wind power
(C) 20,000 MW of solar power
(D) 10,000 MW of solar power
Answer:Â (C)
56. Which one of the following biosphere reserves has UNESCO recognition ?
(A) Manas
(B) Kanchenjunga
(C) Seshachalam Hills
(D) Greater Nicobar
Answer:Â (D)
57. Which activity contributes to water pollution more than any other throughout world ?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Hydroelectric power generation
(C) Industry
(D) Urbanisation
Answer:Â (A)
58. Match List – I with List – II and find the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I
(Biosphere Reserve) |
List – II
(Area of Location) |
a. Nilgiri | i. Deccan Peninsula |
b. Manas | ii. Chhattisgarh |
c. Similipal | iii. Eastern Himalaya |
d. Achankmar- Amarkantak | iv. Western Ghat |
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv iii i ii
Answer:Â (D)
59. G5 are the five most important emerging economies of world. Which one of the following does not form part of G5 ?
(A) Mexico
(B) Brazil
(C) China
(D) Korea
Answer:Â (D)
60. Which of the following nations has the maximum per capita emissions of carbon di-oxide?
(A) China
(B) Japan
(C) USA
(D) India
Answer:Â (C)
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Papers
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved question Papers from June 2006 till today are given below.
Download Year Wise NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Papers PDF
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NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2020 June
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NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2013 September
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Importance of NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2013 September
Solving NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Question Paper 2013 September are important because they give you an idea of how the NTA UGC NET sets the paper.
NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper have the following benefits:
- You get to test your problem-solving skills and chapter-wise knowledge while solving the paper as it brings out the random questions from the various sections.
- NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2013 September contains standard and structured questions which can increase the level of confidence in you if solved properly.
- It somewhat covers the overall concept of the chapters. Thus, solving more NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Question Paper 2013 September will automatically result in a better and effective revision of the chapters.
- It contains concept clearing questions that build your fundamentals of NTA UGC NET Paper 1 strong.
- You gain speed and confidence by solving more questions from the NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Previous Years Question papers.
- The solutions to the questions of the Previous Years Question Paper serves as revision notes. It also aids the preparation for competitive level exams.
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