NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2011 June: To score better marks in the NTA UGC NET Paper 1, you should have depth knowledge of the entire subject.
You can boost your preparation by referring to NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Question Paper 2011 June. It will give you information about the important chapters and concepts covered in all chapters.
You must have NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Papers along with the latest Paper 1 Syllabus to enhance your semester exam preparation.
Here we have provided you with the complete guide on NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2011 June.
NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2011 June
NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Papers are considered the best study materials to score good marks in the paper 1 exam.
Practicing these NTA UGC NET Paper 1 previous year question papers assist the students in getting a clear idea about the question paper pattern and types of questions asked in the exam.
You can check the complete NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2011 June.
1. A research paper is a brief report of research work based on
(A) Primary Data only (B) Secondary Data only (C) Both Primary and Secondary Data (D) None of the above Answer: (C) 2. Newton gave three basic laws of motion. This research is categorized as (A) Descriptive Research (B) Sample Survey (C) Fundamental Research (D) Applied Research Answer: (C) 3. A group of experts in a specific area of knowledge assembled at a place and prepared a syllabus for a new course. The process may be termed as (A) Seminar (B) Workshop (C) Conference (D) Symposium Answer: (B) 4. In the process of conducting research “Formulation of Hypothesis” is followed by (A) Statement of Objectives (B) Analysis of Data (C) Selection of Research Tools (D) Collection of Data Answer: (D) Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 5 to 10: All historians are interpreters of text if they be private letters, Government records or parish birthlists or whatever. For most kinds of historians, these are only the necessary means to understanding something other than the texts themselves, such as a political action or a historical trend, whereas for the intellectual historian, a full understanding of his chosen texts is itself the aim of his enquiries. Of course, the intellectual history is particularly prone to draw on the focus of other disciplines that are habitually interpreting texts for purposes of their own, probing the reasoning that ostensibly connects premises and conclusions. Furthermore, the boundaries with adjacent subdisciplines are shifting and indistinct: the history of art and the history of science both claim a certain autonomy, partly just because they require specialised technical skills, but both can also be seen as part of a wider intellectual history, as is evident when one considers, for example, the common stock of knowledge about cosmological beliefs or moral ideals of a period. Like all historians, the intellectual historian is a consumer rather than a producer of ‘methods’. His distinctiveness lies in which aspect of the past he is trying to illuminate, not in having exclusive possession of either a corpus of evidence or a body of techniques. That being said, it does seem that the label ‘intellectual history’ attracts a disproportionate share of misunderstanding. It is alleged that intellectual history is the history of something that never really mattered. The long dominance of the historical profession by political historians bred a kind of philistinism, an unspoken belief that power and its exercise was ‘what mattered’. The prejudice was reinforced by the assertion that political action was never really the outcome of principles or ideas that were ‘more flapdoodle’. The legacy of this precept is still discernible in the tendency to require ideas to have ‘licensed’ the political class before they can be deemed worthy of intellectual attention, as if there were some reasons why the history of art or science, of philosophy or literature, were somehow of interest and significance than the history of Parties or Parliaments. Perhaps in recent years the mirror-image of this philistinism has been more common in the claim that ideas of any one is of systematic expression or sophistication do not matter, as if they were only held by a minority. Answer the following questions: 5. An intellectual historian aims to fully understand (A) the chosen texts of his own (B) political actions (C) historical trends (D) his enquiries Answer: (A) 6. Intellectual historians do not claim exclusive possession of (A) conclusions (B) any corpus of evidence (C) distinctiveness (D) habitual interpretation Answer: (D) 7. The misconceptions about intellectual history stem from (A) a body of techniques (B) the common stock of knowledge (C) the dominance of political historians (D) cosmological beliefs Answer: (D) 8. What is philistinism? (A) Reinforcement of prejudice (B) Fabrication of reasons (C) The hold of land-owning classes (D) Belief that power and its exercise matter Answer: (D) 9. Knowledge of cosmological beliefs or moral ideas of a period can be drawn as part of (A) literary criticism (B) history of science (C) history of philosophy (D) intellectual history Answer: (D) 10. The claim that ideas of any one is of systematic expression do not matter, as if they were held by a minority, is (A) to have a licensed political class (B) a political action (C) a philosophy of literature (D) the mirror-image of philistinism Answer: (D) 11. Public communication tends to occur within a more (A) complex structure (B) political structure (C) convenient structure (D) formal structure Answer: (C) 12. Transforming thoughts, ideas and messages into verbal and non-verbal signs is referred to as (A) channelisation (B) mediation (C) encoding (D) decoding Answer: (A) 13. Effective communication needs a supportive (A) economic environment (B) political environment (C) social environment (D) multi-cultural environment Answer: (C) 14. A major barrier in the transmission of cognitive data in the process of communication is an individual’s (A) personality (B) expectation (C) social status (D) coding ability Answer: (D) 15. When communicated, institutionalised stereotypes become (A) myths (B) reasons (C) experiences (D) convictions Answer: (C) 16. In mass communication, selective perception is dependent on the receiver’s (A) competence (B) pre-disposition (C) receptivity (D) ethnicity Answer: (C) 17. Determine the relationship between the pair of words NUMERATOR : DENOMINATOR and then select the pair of words from the following which have a similar relationship : (A) fraction : decimal (B) divisor : quotient (C) top : bottom (D) dividend : divisor Answer: (D) 18. Find the wrong number in the sequence 125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165 (A) 130 (B) 142 (C) 153 (D) 165 Answer: (D) 19. If HOBBY is coded as IOBY and LOBBY is coded as MOBY; then BOBBY is coded as (A) BOBY (B) COBY (C) DOBY (D) OOBY Answer: (B) 20. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship, make the right choice for the second set: K/T : 11/20 :: J/R : ? (A) 10/8 (B) 10/18 (C) 11/19 (D) 10/19 Answer: (B) 21. If A = 5, B = 6, C = 7, D = 8 and so on, what do the following numbers stand for? 17, 19, 20, 9, 8 (A) Plane (B) Moped (C) Motor (D) Tonga Answer: (B) 22. The price of oil is increased by 25%. If the expenditure is not allowed to increase, the ratio between the reduction in consumption and the original consumption is (A) 1 : 3 (B) 1 : 4 (C) 1 : 5 (D) 1 : 6 Answer: (C) 23. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are preceded by 5 but not immediately followed by 3 ? 5 8 3 7 5 8 6 3 8 5 4 5 8 4 7 6 5 5 8 3 5 8 7 5 8 2 8 5 (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 3 Answer: (A) 24. If a rectangle were called a circle, a circle a point, a point a triangle and a triangle a square, the shape of a wheel is (A) Rectangle (B) Circle (C) Point (D) Triangle Answer: (C) 25. Which one of the following methods is best suited for mapping the distribution of different crops as provided in the standard classification of crops in India ? (A) Pie diagram (B) Chorochromatic technique (C) Isopleth technique (D) Dot method Answer: (B) 26. Which one of the following does not come under the methods of data classification ? (A) Qualitative (B) Normative (C) Spatial (D) Quantitative Answer: (C) 27. Which one of the following is not a source of data ? (A) Administrative records (B) Population census (C) GIS (D) Sample survey Answer: (A) 28. If the statement ‘some men are cruel’ is false, which of the following statements/statement are/is true ? (i) All men are cruel. (ii) No men are cruel. (iii) Some men are not cruel. (A) (i) and (iii) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iii) only Answer: (D) 29. The octal number system consists of the following symbols : (A) 0 – 7 (B) 0 – 9 (C) 0 – 9, A – F (D) None of the above Answer: (A) 30. The binary equivalent of (–19)10 in signed magnitude system is (A) 11101100 (B) 11101101 (C) 10010011 (D) None of these Answer: (D) 31. DNS in internet technology stands for (A) Dynamic Name System (B) Domain Name System (C) Distributed Name System (D) None of these Answer: (B) 32. HTML stands for (A) Hyper Text Markup Language (B) Hyper Text Manipulation Language (C) Hyper Text Managing Links (D) Hyper Text Manipulating Links Answer: (A) 33. Which of the following is type of LAN ? (A) Ethernet (B) Token Ring (C) FDDI (D) All of the above Answer: (A) 34. Which of the following statements is true ? (A) Smart cards do not require an operating system. (B) Smart cards and PCs use some operating system. (C) COS is smart card operating system. (D) The communication between reader and card is in full duplex mode. Answer: (B) 35. The Ganga Action Plan was initiated during the year (A) 1986 (B) 1988 (C) 1990 (D) 1992 Answer: (A) 36. Identify the correct sequence of energy sources in order of their share in the power sector in India : (A) Thermal > nuclear > hydro > wind (B) Thermal > hydro > nuclear > wind (C) Hydro > nuclear > thermal > wind (D) Nuclear > hydro > wind > thermal Answer: (B) 37. Chromium as a contaminant in drinking water in excess of permissible levels, causes (A) Skeletal damage (B) Gastrointestinal problem (C) Dermal and nervous problems (D) Liver/Kidney problems Answer: (C) 38. The main precursors of winter smog are (A) N2O and hydrocarbons (B) NOx and hydrocarbons (C) SO2 and hydrocarbons (D) SO2 and ozone Answer: (B) 39. Flash floods are caused when (A) the atmosphere is convectively unstable and there is considerable vertical wind shear (B) the atmosphere is stable (C) the atmosphere is convectively unstable with no vertical windshear (D) winds are catabatic Answer: (A) 40. In mega cities of India, the dominant source of air pollution is (A) transport sector (B) thermal power (C) municipal waste (D) commercial sector Answer: (C) 41. The first Open University in India was set up in the State of (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Delhi (C) Himachal Pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu Answer: (A) 42. Most of the Universities in India are funded by (A) the Central Government (B) the State Governments (C) the University Grants Commission (D) Private bodies and Individuals Answer: (C) 43. Which of the following organizations looks after the quality of Technical and Management education in India ? (A) NCTE (B) MCI (C) AICTE (D) CSIR Answer: (C) 44. Consider the following statements : Identify the statement which implies natural justice. (A) The principle of natural justice is followed by the Courts. (B) Justice delayed is justice denied. (C) Natural justice is an inalienable right of a citizen (D) A reasonable opportunity of being heard must be given. Answer: (C) 45. The President of India is (A) the Head of State (B) the Head of Government (C) both Head of the State and the Head of the Government (D) None of the above Answer: (C) 46. Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President of India ? (A) Chief Election Commissioner (B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India (C) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission (D) Governor of a State Answer: (D) Not for Visually Handicapped Candidates Questions 47 to 49 are based upon the following diagram in which there are three interlocking circles A, P and S where A stands for Artists, circle P for Professors and circle S for Sportspersons. Different regions in the figure are lettered from a to f: 47. The region which represents artists who are neither sportsmen nor professors. (A) d (B) e (C) b (D) g Answer: (B) 48. The region which represents professors, who are both artists and sportspersons. (A) a (B) c (C) d (D) g Answer: (A) 49. The region which represents professors, who are also sportspersons, but not artists. (A) e (B) f (C) c (D) g Answer: (C) Questions 50 to 52 are based on the following data : Measurements of some variable X were made at an interval of 1 minute from 10 A.M. to 10:20 A.M. The data, thus, obtained is as follows : X : 60, 62, 65, 64, 63, 61, 66, 65, 70, 68 63, 62, 64, 69, 65, 64, 66, 67, 66, 64 50. The value of X, which is exceeded 10% of the time in the duration of measurement, is (A) 69 (B) 68 (C) 67 (D) 66 Answer: (B) 51. The value of X, which is exceeded 90% of the time in the duration of measurement, is (A) 63 (B) 62 (C) 61 (D) 60 Answer: (C) 52. The value of X, which is exceeded 50% of the time in the duration of measurement, is (A) 66 (B) 65 (C) 64 (D) 63 Answer: (B) 53. For maintaining an effective discipline in the class, the teacher should (A) Allow students to do what they like. (B) Deal with the students strictly. (C) Give the students some problem to solve. (D) Deal with them politely and firmly. Answer: (D) 54. An effective teaching aid is one which (A) is colourful and good looking (B) activates all faculties (C) is visible to all students (D) easy to prepare and use Answer: (B) 55. Those teachers are popular among students who (A) develop intimacy with them (B) help them solve their problems (C) award good grades (D) take classes on extra tuition fee Answer: (B) 56. The essence of an effective classroom environment is (A) a variety of teaching aids (B) lively student-teacher interaction (C) pin-drop silence (D) strict discipline Answer: (B) 57. On the first day of his class, if a teacher is asked by the students to introduce himself, he should (A) ask them to meet after the class (B) tell them about himself in brief (C) ignore the demand and start teaching (D) scold the student for this unwanted demand Answer: (B) 58. Moral values can be effectively inculcated among the students when the teacher (A) frequently talks about values (B) himself practices them (C) tells stories of great persons (D) talks of Gods and Goddesses Answer: (B) 59. The essential qualities of a researcher are (A) spirit of free enquiry (B) reliance on observation and evidence (C) systematization or theorizing of knowledge (D) all the above Answer: (D) 60. Research is conducted to I. Generate new knowledge II. Not to develop a theory III. Obtain research degree IV. Reinterpret existing knowledge Which of the above are correct ? (A) I, III & II (B) III, II & IV (C) II, I & III (D) I, III & IV Answer: (D) |
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Papers
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved question Papers from June 2006 till today are given below.
Download Year Wise NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Papers PDF
|
NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2020 June
|
NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2011 June
|
Importance of NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2011 June
NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2011 June have the following benefits:
- NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2011 June allow students to understand the topic significantly.
- Additionally, when students go through the questions year-wise, they learn the change in question patterns. Thus helping them out in determining the marking scheme of their upcoming test.
- Furthermore, when one studies questions repeatedly, getting to learn the simple details about the sums would also become simple in no time.
- Nothing can beat one’s self-evaluation session. So practice and understand what your strength and weakness are. Then try working to improve.
- When you practice the NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Question Paper 2011 June, you understand time management, which helps you perform excellently in your final exam.
- You gain speed and confidence by solving more questions from NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2011 June.
- The solutions to the questions of the NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2011 June as revision notes. It also aids the preparation for competitive level exams.
We have covered the NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2011 June. If you have any questions about NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Papers, please let us know in the comment section.