NTA UGC NET Linguistics Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 September

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NTA UGC NET Linguistics Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 September

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1. The processes by which a child adopts to acquire a language, viz,

(i) Acquiring syntactic forms from meaning and,

(ii) Acquiring meaning from forms respectively is called:

(A) Semantic bootstrapping and syntactic bootstrapping

(B) Syntactic bootstrapping and semantic bootstrapping

(C) Form and content acquisition

(D) Content and form acquisition

Answer: (A)

2. Assertion I: A deep dyslexic may interact with words but they are not able to associate with the direct phonemic graphemic relations with meaning.

Assertion II: Deep dyslexic may be termed as phonemic dyslexia.

Codes:

(A) (I) is true, (II) is false.

(B) (I) is false, (II) is true.

(C) Both (I) and (II) are true.

(D) Both (I) and (II) are false.

Answer: (C)

3. Blindness in one half of the visual field is known as

(A) Hemifield viewing

(B) Hemiplegia

(C) Hemianopia

(D) Hemiprosis

Answer: (C)

4. Match the following with List – I and List – II and choose correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                        List – II

a.Agnosia                    i. acquired difficulty in reading

b. Agraphia                 ii. Impairment of voluntary and purposive movements

c. Alexia                      iii. Inability to associate meaning with sensation

d. Apraxia                   iv. Acquired difficulty in writing

Codes:

a b c d

(A) iii iv i ii

(B) iv iii ii i

(C) ii i iv iii

(D) i ii iii iv

Answer: (A)

5. “Interpersonal communicative and cognitive processes that everywhere and always shape language” is the part of

(A) Cognitive theories

(B) Constructionist theories

(C) Usage-based theories

(D) Construction grammar and phraseological theories

Answer: (C)

6. A symbolic structure is nothing more than the pairing of a

(A) Syntactic structure and a semantic structure.

(B) Morphological structure and a syntactic structure.

(C) Semantic structure and a phonological structure.

(D) Phonological structure and a syntactic structure.

Answer: (C)

7. The lexical selection is dependent on these following factors as in order below:

(A) Conceptual, Syntactic and Phonological

(B) Syntactic, Conceptual and Phonological

(C) Phonological, Conceptual and Syntactical

(D) Conceptual, Phonological and Syntactical

Answer: (A)

8. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(A) Receptive aphasia                         i. non-fluent

(B) Expressive aphasia                        ii. Alzheimer’s disease

(C) Pure aphasia                                  iii. Alexia, agraphiaand verbal agnosia

(D) Primary progressive aphasia         iv. fluent

Answer: (C)

9. The MT system based on statistical method is

(A) Google translate

(B) Anglabharati

(C) Anusaarak

(D) Mantra

Answer: (A)

10. To articulate a central vowel the tongue is

(A) Forwarded

(B) Retracted

(C) Raised

(D) Neither forwarded nor retracted

Answer: (D)

11. The ‘Pulse’ or ‘Motor’ theory was put forward by

(A) D. Jones

(B) R.H. Stetson

(C) A.M. Bell

(D) P. Ladefoged

Answer: (B)

12. In aspirated stops, voicing

(A) Takes place throughout the closure and release of the airstream in the mouth cavity.

(B) Takes place during the part of the closure.

(C) Starts immediately at the moment of the release of the closure.

(D) Starts considerably after the release of the closure.

Answer: (D)

13. Acoustic information regarding the place of articulation of a particular stop can be obtained from

(A) Voice bar

(B) Transitions

(C) VOT

(D) Aperiodic vibrations

Answer: (B)

14. Assertion I: The machine used for the analysis and measurement of frequency, duration of speech sounds, and the like is known as a spectrogram.

Assertion II: The output of the above machine is a spectrograph.

Codes:

(A) Both (I) and (II) are false.

(B) Both (I) and (II) are true.

(C) (I) is true and (II) is false.

(D) (I) is false and (II) is true.

Answer: (A)

15. In any preliminary transcription if separate symbols are used for two or more variants of a single phoneme, the phenomenon is known as

(A) Overextension

(B) Overdifferentiation

(C) Underdifferentiation

(D) Overcorrection

Answer: (B)

16. Match the following with List – I with those in List – II and choose correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                        List – II

a. Insertion                  i. Skt. Jagāma‘he went’

b. Metathesis               ii. Eng. pants > in a variety of eng. pans

c. Deletion                   iii. Eng. wasp <old eng.wæps

d. Reduplication         iv. Eng. film > in a Variety of eng.fil∂m

Codes:

a b c d

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) ii i iii iv

(C) iv iii ii i

(D) iii iv i ii

Answer: (C)

17. The words in the List – I contain affixes. Match the affixes in the List – I with the types in the List – II.

List – I                                    List – II

a. look – ing                            i. prefix

b. un – do                                ii. interfix

c. speed – o – meter                iii. Suffix

d. German – gefragt ‘asked’   iv. circumfix

Codes:

a b c d

(A) i iii iv ii

(B) ii iii i iv

(C) iv ii iii i

(D) iii i ii iv

Answer: (D)

18. The English word ‘biotech’ is an example of

(A) Blend

(B) Back formation

(C) Compound

(D) Acronym

Answer: (A)

19. The term ‘three dimensional phonology’ refers to

(A) Generative Phonology

(B) Structural Phonology

(C) Natural Phonology

(D) Non-linear Phonology

Answer: (D)

20. Assertion I: Generative phonology rejects the concept of phoneme, but prosodic phonology does not reject it.

Assertion II: Both generative phonology and prosodic phonology reject the concept of phoneme.

Codes:

(A) Both (I) and (II) are true

(B) Both (I) and (II) are false

(C) (I) is true and (II) is false

(D) (I) is false and (II) is true

Answer: (D)

21. Match the items in List – I with those in List – II and select the correct answer from the codes:

List – I                                                                                                List – II

a. Systematic, phonetic and systematic phonemic representation      i. Metrical phonology

b. Syllable prominence and hierarchy                                                 ii. Auto-segmental phonology

c. Tiers and association lines                                                               iii. Generative phonology

d. Constraint rankings                                                                         iv. Optimality theory

Codes:

a b c d

(A) iii i ii iv

(B) ii i iv iii

(C) iv ii iii i

(D) i ii iv iii

Answer: (A)

22. In the English word ‘handful’ the part ‘– ful’ is a/an

(A) Inflectional suffix

(B) Derivational suffix

(C) Post position

(D) clitic

Answer: (B)

23. Assertion I: In optimality theory, the well-formedness constraints are grounded in universal markedness principles. A constraint reflects a universal tendency.

Assertion II: Constraints cannot be violated.

Codes:

(A) Both (I) and (II) are true

(B) Both (I) and (II) are false

(C) (I) is true and (II) is false

(D) (I) is false and (II) is true

Answer: (C)

24. Match the items in List – I and with those in List – II and select the correct answer from the codes:

List – I                                                List – II

a. Speech processing                           i. Formal analysis of a sentence by computer

b. Information retrieval                       ii. Pattern recognition

c. Parsing                                             iii. Stemming

d. Optical character recognition          iv. Speech recognition and text to speech

Codes:

a b c d

(A) iv iii i ii

(B) i ii iii iv

(C) iii ii iv i

(D) ii i iii iv

Answer: (A)

25. The notion ‘Transformational Grammar’ (TG) or ‘Transformational Generative Grammar’ (TGG) was first discussed by Noam Chomsky in

(A) The Sound Pattern of English,1968

(B) Aspects of the Theory of Syntax, 1965

(C) Syntactic Structures, 1957

(D) Current issues in Linguistic Theory, 1964

Answer: (C)

26. Match the items in List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                        List – II

a. Cognates                 i. Phonetics

b. Speech Sounds        ii. Dialect Geography

c. Speech Variation     iii. Lexicography

d. Dictionary               iv. Comparative method

Codes:

a b c d

(A) iv iii ii i

(B) i iv ii iii

(C) iv i ii iii

(D) iii ii iv i

Answer: (C)

27. Select the correct sequence according to the development of grammars:

(A) Universal grammar, traditional grammar, transformational grammar, structural grammar.

(B) Traditional grammar, structural grammar, transformational grammar and universal grammar.

(C) Traditional grammar, universal grammar, transformational grammar, structural grammar.

(D) Transformational grammar, structural grammar, traditional grammar and universal grammar.

Answer: (B)

28. The basic word order in Dravidian languages is

(A) SVO

(B) SOV

(C) VSO

(D) VOS

Answer: (B)

29. Match the items in List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                                                        List – II

a. Language in culture                                                 i. Language Planning

b. Linguistic change                                                    ii. Historical Linguistics

c. Language in mind                                                   iii. Ethno linguistics

d. Conscious and deliberate change of language        iv. Psycholinguistics

Codes:

a b c d

(A) ii iii iv i

(B) iii ii iv i

(C) iii iv ii i

(D) ii iii i iv

Answer: (B)

30. In traditional dialectology the methodology involved selection of informants as:

(A) Mobile, rural older people

(B) Non-mobile, older, rural people

(C) Rural non-mobile young people

(D) Non-mobile, urban old people

Answer: (B)

31. Identify the odd item from the following:

(A) Idiolect

(B) Dialect

(C) Imperative

(D) Mutual intelligibility

Answer: (C)

32. Assertion I: Analogy brings about regularity in the paradigm.

Assertion II: Analogy destroys the paradigmatic regularity.

Codes:

(A) (I) and (II) are false

(B) (I) and (II) are true

(C) (I) is false (II) is true

(D) (I) is true (II) is false

Answer: (D)

33. Kota, Toda and Kui languages come under:

(A) Central Dravidian group

(B) North Dravidian group

(C) South Dravidian group

(D) Tibato-Burman group

Answer: (A)

34. The term isogloss is associated with

(A) Lexicograpy

(B) Graphology

(C) Dialectology

(D) Pragmatics

Answer: (C)

35. When linguistic forms of genetically related languages show phonological and semantic identify, they are termed as

(A) Relic forms

(B) Synonyms

(C) Antonyms

(D) Cognates

Answer: (D)

36. A term used in linguistics, referring to the quantification of the extent to which languages have diverged from a common source is

(A) Geographical linguistics

(B) Glottochronology

(C) Analytical linguistics

(D) Areal linguistics

Answer: (B)

37. A language which is characterized by words typically containing linear sequence of morphs is termed as

(A) Isolating language

(B) Synthetic language

(C) Agglutinating language

(D) Polysynthetic language

Answer: (C)

38. The study of a language at different points on the time dimension is called

(A) Synchronic

(B) Diachronic

(C) Contrastive

(D) Descriptive

Answer: (B)

39. Assertion I: The comparative method is a technique which allows us to trace back to the earlier stage of the languages. These languages are related and belong to the same family.

Assertion II: The technique involves comparing alternants of a single language.

Codes:

(A) Both (I) and (II) are true.

(B) Both (I) and (II) are false.

(C) (I) is false, but (II) is true.

(D) (I) is true, but (II) is false.

Answer: (D)

40. The notion that India is a linguistic area was proposed by

(A) Peter Edwin Hook

(B) M.B. Emeneau

(C) P.B. Pandit

(D) Collin P. Masica

Answer: (B)

41. Match the following with the items in List – I and in List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                                List – II

a. Proficiency tests                  i. are administered at the end of the course

b. Diagnostic tests                   ii. Measure people’s ability in a language

c. Placement tests                    iii. Are administered to identify student’s strength and weakness

d. Achievement tests              iv. Are used to assign students to classes at different levels.

Codes:

a b c d

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) ii iii iv i

(C) iii iv ii i

(D) iv iii i ii

Answer: (B)

42. The ability to deal adequately with a written system of communication is known as

(A) Orthography

(B) Literacy

(C) Computer

(D) Illiteracy

Answer: (B)

43. In the language of mass media the communicators strategies are sometimes ‘responsive’ and sometimes “initiative”. The ‘responsive’ strategy is known as

(A) Audience design

(B) Audience choice

(C) Audience preferences

(D) Style

Answer: (A)

44. The stage theory of ‘Cognitive Development’ is a description of cognitive development as four stages in children. The originator of the theory is

(A) Jean Piaget

(B) Bernard Weiner

(C) N. Chomsky

(D) B.F. Skinner

Answer: (A)

45. Classical conditioning is a reflexive learning in which a stimulus acquires the capacity to evoke a response. It was first described by

(A) N. Chomsky

(B) Ivan Pavalov

(C) B.F. Skinner

(D) A. Bandura

Answer: (B)

46. Match the items in List – I with those in List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                                List – II

a. Intra lingualtranslation                    i. Translation fromSL to T.L

b. Interlingual Translation                   ii. Translation within the same language

c. Inter semiotic translation                 iii. Translation of the verbal sign by a non-verbal sign

d. Interpreting                                                 iv. Transferring ideas orally

Codes:

a b c d

(A) ii i iii iv

(B) i ii iii iv

(C) iii ii i iv

(D) iv iii ii i

Answer: (A)

47. Catford was very much criticized for his linguistic theory of translation. One of the most scathing criticismscame from

(A) E. Nida

(B) P. Newmark

(C) Snell – Hornby

(D) Pym Anthony

Answer: (C)

48. The source text and target text words, triggering the same or similar associations in the minds of native speakers of two languages are known as

(A) Dynamic equivalence

(B) Null equivalence

(C) Formal equivalence

(D) Textual equivalence

Answer: (A)

49. Grammatically plural nouns that have no corresponding singular forms such as “scissors”, and “spectacles” are known as

(A) Pluraliatantum

(B) Pleonasm

(C) Polar autonyms

(D) Polarity

Answer: (A)

 

50. Match the items in List – I with those in List – II with the codes given below:

List – I                        List – II

a. Locution                  i. A sentence with grammatical structure and a linguistic meaning

b. Illocution                 ii. The effect of the speech act on the hearer

c. Perlocution              iii. The speaker’s intention

d. Expressives             iv. Speaker’s psychological state or attitude.

Codes:

a b c d

(A) iv iii i ii

(B) i iii ii iv

(C) ii i iii iv

(D) i ii iii iv

Answer: (B)

51. Match the items in List – I with those in List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                        List – II

a. Meronymy               i. The word referring to the whole

b. Holonymy               ii. The word referring to the part

c. Hyponymy              iii. The word referring to the kind

d. Hypronym               iv. The word referring to the inclusive category

Codes:

a b c d

(A) ii i iv iii

(B) ii i iii iv

(C) iv ii iii i

(D) iii iv ii i

Answer: (B)

52. Match the items in List – I with those in List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                                            List – II

a. Lexical ambiguity                                        i. I will meet you in the bank

b. Grammatical ambiguity                               ii. Ship sails today

c. Both lexical and grammatical ambiguity     iii. The chicken is ready to eat

d. Hyperonymic Interpretation                       iv. Why don’t you bring a friend?

Codes:

a b c d

(A) i iii ii iv

(B) iv iii i ii

(C) ii iii i iv

(D) iii ii iv i

Answer: (A)

53. In the sentence “Manmohan Singh arrived in London this morning. He will address the meeting tomorrow”, the type of anaphora used is:

(A) Coreferential anaphora

(B) Non coreferential anaphora

(C) Cataphora

(D) Zero – anaphora

Answer: (A)

54. The principle that states that the meaning of a complex expression is a compositional function of the meaning of its parts is known as

(A) Semantically opaque

(B) Principle of compositionality

(C) Principle of non-compositionality

(D) Prototypical

Answer: (B)

55. ‘Move’ in computational linguistics is a

(A) Last report operation

(B) Costly operation

(C) Optional operation

(D) Universal operation

Answer: (A)

56. Transfer method assumes

(A) One intermediate stage

(B) Two intermediate stages

(C) Three intermediate stages

(D) Four intermediate stages

Answer: (B)

57. The different word-orders of languages are the result of

(A) Universal grammar

(B) Absolute universals

(C) Parametric variation

(D) Native competence

Answer: (C)

58. Match the following items in List – I and List – II and select the correct codes given below:

List – I                                                List – II

a. Comparative Method                      i. Historical Linguistics

b. Participant Observation Method     ii. Field Linguistics

c. Direct Method                                 iii. Ethno- Linguistics

d. Method of eliciting data                 iv. Language teaching

Codes:

a b c d

(A) i iv iii ii

(B) ii iv iii i

(C) i iii iv ii

(D) iv ii iii i

Answer: (C)

59. Assertion I: Language loyalty means devotion to preserve the use of a language or the traditional form of a language.

Assertion II: Many first generation immigrants to an alien country are extremely loyal to their first language, but their loyalty may go on decreasing in their children and grand-children.

Codes:

(A) Both (I) and (II) are true.

(B) (I) is false, but (II) is true.

(C) (I) is true, but (II) is false.

(D) Both (I) and (II) are false.

Answer: (A)

60. The classical language which has been revived and remarkably developed in modern times is

(A) Vedic Sanskrit

(B) Hebrew

(C) Latin

(D) Homeric Greek

Answer: (B)

61. A distinction between the ‘elaborated code’ used by the middle class and the ‘restricted code’ used by the working class people was made by

(A) Dell Hymes

(B) William Bright

(C) Basil Bernstein

(D) Peter Trudgill

Answer: (C)

62. Give the logical sequence of the four parameters of languages planning:

(i) Acceptance

(ii) Selection

(iii) Elaboration of function

(iv) Codification

Codes:

(A) i iii iv ii

(B) ii i iv iii

(C) iii i ii iv

(D) ii iv i iii

Answer: (D)

63. Assertion I: Spoken languages go on changing whereas their written forms lag behind.

Assertion II: Standardization of scripts becomes due in course of time.

Codes:

(A) Both (I) and (II) are true.

(B) (I) is true, but (II) is false.

(C) Both (I) and (II) are false.

(D) (I) is false, but (II) is true.

Answer: (A)

64. A phrase structure rule specifying the immediate sub-constituents of a given syntactic category or phrase-type is known as

(A) Context sensitive rule

(B) Context free rule

(C) Context-free rewrite rule

(D) Case assignment rule

Answer: (C)

65. Arrange the following in order in which they appeared. Select the correct answer from the codes below:

(i) DP Hypothesis

(ii) SS Model

(iii) X – bar Theory

(iv) Aspects Model

Codes:

(A) ii iv iii i

(B) iii iv i ii

(C) i ii iii iv

(D) iv iii ii i

Answer: (A)

66. Match the following with List – I and List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                    List – II

a. Intransitivity                        i. ram ne sita: kobula: ya:

b. Transitivity                          ii. ramcae pi: ta: hai

c. Double Transitivity             iii. ra:msota: hai

d. Ergative                              iv. ra:m us kopaisedetahai

Codes:

a b c d

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) iii ii iv i

(C) iv iii ii i

(D) iii iv i ii

Answer: (B)

67. Assertion I: The hierarchical structure of the word ‘foolishness’ can be presented as the following:

(((fool) Root + (–ish) DA) Adj. + (–ness) DA) Noun

Assertion II: The hierarchical structure of the word ‘foolishness’ can also be presented as the following:

Codes:

(A) Both (I) and (II) are disadvantageous.

(B) Both (I) and (II) are advantageous.

(C) (I) is advantageous and (II) is dis-advantageous.

(D) (I) is disadvantageous and (II) isadvantageous.

Answer: (Wrong question)

68. Typologically NIA languages can be said to be characterized by the non-universal phonological features:

(A) Bilabial, Dental and Uvular

(B) Retroflexion, Aspiration and nasalized vowel

(C) Velar, Uvular and Dental

(D) Labio-dental, Uvular and Velar

Answer: (B)

69. Austro-Asiatic and Dravidian languages do not exhibit

(A) Ergativity

(B) Negativity

(C) Affirmity

(D) Causative

Answer: (A)

70. Since the South Asian languages except “Khasi” are verb final languages, they share

(A) Anumber of word order universals of SVO languages

(B) Anumber of word order universals of SOV languages

(C) Anumber of word order universals of VSO languages

(D) Anumber of word order universals of OVS languages

Answer: (B)

71. In Tibeto Burman, Dravidian, Bengali and

Marathi the negative occurs

(A) Post verbally

(B) Pre verbally

(C) Mid verbally

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

72. Match the items in List – I with the items in List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes:

List – I                        List – II

a. sing – sang               i. zero modification

b. sheep –sheep (Pl.)   ii. ablant

c. cat – cats                 iii. suppletion

d. go – went                iv. affixation

Codes:

a b c d

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) iii i ii iv

(C) ii i iv iii

(D) iv iii ii i

Answer: (C)

73. Match the following List – I and List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                                                                                List – II

a. Little attention given to pronunciation                                           i. Directapproach

b. Mother tongue is never used                                                           ii. Grammar Translation method

c. Priority in studyingthe TL is first, readingability is second            iii. Audio-lingualmethod

d. Principles of behaviour psychology                                                iv. Reading approach

Codes:

a b c d

(A) ii i iv iii

(B) i ii iii iv

(C) iii iv i ii

(D) iv iii i ii

Answer: (A)

74. In Santhali ‘manjhi’ means ‘headman’ whereas mapanjhi means its plural form i.e. headmen. This is an example of

(A) Prefixation

(B) Suffixation

(C) Infixation

(D) Simulfixation

Answer: (C)

75. ‘Teach language, not about language’ is one of the basic tenets of

(A) Direct method

(B) Audio-lingual method

(C) Grammar translation method

(D) Communicative method

Answer: (B)


Year Wise NTA UGC NET Linguistics Paper 3 Solved Question Papers

The old UGC NET Examinations paper-3 in Linguistics was of descriptive type till December 2011.

Paper 3 becomes the objective type from June 2012 to November 2017. From July 2018 onward, paper 3 was stopped and becomes part of paper 2 itself.

So, the old questions for paper-3 from June 2012 to November 2017 which were of objective type (multiple choice questions) can be used by the UGC NET aspirants for their better preparation for paper-2.

Year Wise NTA UGC NET Linguistics Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are given below.

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