NTA UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June

NTA UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June: To score better marks in the NTA UGC NET Forensic Science, you should have depth knowledge of the entire subject.

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NTA UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June

NTA UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are the best study materials to score good marks in the Forensic Science exam.

Practicing these NTA UGC NET Forensic Science paper 3 Previous Year Question papers assist the students in getting a clear idea about the question paper pattern and types of questions asked in the exam.

You can check the complete NTA UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June.


1. The book entitled “An Introduction to Criminalistics” was written by

(A) Hans Gross

(B) Soderman

(C) Paul Kirk

(D) Osterburg & O’Hara

Answer: (D)

2. Following are the essential points in a proper sketch of scene of crime

(A) North direction

(B) Scale

(C) Legend

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

3. The suitable control sample in case of blood stained soil is usually taken within the distance of _______ from spot.

(A) 3 inches

(B) 1 foot

(C) 2 feet

(D) 3 feet

Answer: (A)

4. In an aircrash case, the following method of survey is most useful.

(A) Strip method

(B) Spiral method

(C) Zonal method

(D) Wheel method

Answer: (D)

5. Match the following:

List – I                                    List – II

(i) William Herschel                1. Forensic Ballistics

(ii) Osborn                               2. Forensic Anthropology

(iii) Krogman                           3. Finger print

(iv) Hatcher                             4. Questioned document

Codes:

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(A) 3   4    2     1

(B) 2   1    3     4

(C) 4   3    2     1

(D) 1   2    4     3

Answer: (A)

6. Bevelling of a wound is seen in the following injuries.

(A) Contusion

(B) Laceration

(C) Abrasion

(D) Incised wound

Answer: (D)

7. Choose the correct answer:

The steps of investigation in proper sequence is :

(A) Protection of crime scene, interview of witness, photography of crime scene, collection and dispatch of physical evidence

(B) Photography of crime scene, protection of crime scene, interview of witness, collection and dispatch of physical evidence.

(C) Protection of crime scene, photography of crime scene, collection and dispatch of physical evidence, interview of witness

(D) Interview of witness, photography of crime scene, collection and dispatch of physical evidence, protection of crime scene

Answer: (C)

8. Spin-spin coupling is observed in

(A) Raman Spectroscopy

(B) Neutron Activation Analysis

(C) Mass spectrometry

(D) NMR

Answer: (D)

9. In XRF spectrometry, the excitation source is

(A) Electron Gun

(B) X-ray tube

(C) Proton gun

(D) Neutron gun

Answer: (B)

10. Electrode less Discharge Lamp (EDL) is used in

(A) Atomic Absorption Spectrometer

(B) Atomic Emission Spectrometer

(C) Infra-red Spectrometer

(D) X-ray Fluorescence Spectrometer

Answer: (A)

11. Basic requirements of a monochromator are

(A) Resolution

(B) Spectral Range

(C) Dispersion

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

12. Following technique provides a unique fingerprint of a chemical structure:

(A) IR Spectrometry

(B) UV Spectrometry

(C) NIR Spectrometry

(D) Visible Spectrometry

Answer: (A)

13. Mass Spectrometry requires the sample to be in:

(A) Liquid state

(B) Vapour state

(C) Solid state

(D) Semisolid state

Answer: (B)

14. Following detector in HPLC generates structural and molecular weight information about the eluted solute:

(A) Electrochemical detector

(B) Fluorescence detector

(C) MS detector

(D) RI detector

Answer: (C)

15. First systematic presentation of Neutron activation analysis method was made by:

(A) Clarke and Overman

(B) Martin and Synge

(C) Henry and Pascal

(D) Piobert and Pascal

Answer: (A)

16. Radiations emitted by radioactive elements are

(A) Alpha rays

(B) Gamma rays

(C) Beta rays

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

17. Maintenance of the correct number of chromosomes in cell division (mitosis) is dependent on a process of

(A) DNA duplication

(B) DNA mutation

(C) Single nucleotide polymorphism

(D) All of the above

Answer: (A)

18. The following is not red cell isoenzymes:

(A) Adenosine deaminase

(B) Transferrin

(C) Glutamate pyruvate transaminase

(D) Phosphoglucomutase

Answer: (B)

19. Which of the following is involved in human body’s immune system?

(A) WBC

(B) RBC

(C) Thrombocytes

(D) Serum

Answer: (A)

20. One of the options mentioned is not a step involved in PCR technique:

(A) Annealing

(B) Deuaturation

(C) Extension of nucleotides

(D) Southern blotting

Answer: (D)

21. Assertion (A): Detailed note should be recorded regarding the amount of blood found/splattered at the scene of occurrence.

Reason (R): It would help to evaluate about the length of survival of the victim after assault.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(B) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

(C) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (A)

22. The main ingredient of Mandrax is

(A) PCP

(B) STP

(C) Methaqualone

(D) GHB

Answer: (C)

23. Dry ashing method is used for the extraction of following poisons from viscera:

(A) Organic volatile

(B) Organic non-volatile

(C) Metallic

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

24. Following color test is applied for the detection of opiates:

(A) Marquis

(B) Mecke

(C) Froehde’s

(D) All of the above

Answer: (B)

25. Lysergic acid is found in

(A) Ergot fungus

(B) Psilocybe mexicanna

(C) Lophophora Williamsie

(D) Argimoni wexicanna

Answer: (A)

26. Screening tests are performed for

(A) Tentative identification

(B) Definite identification

(C) Quantitative analysis

(D) Semiquantitative analysis

Answer: (A)

27. The combination of the following liquids is most suitable in the density gradient column:

(A) bromoform and phenol

(B) bromobenzene and methanol

(C) bromoform and bromobenzene

(D) bromoform, benzene and phenol

Answer: (C)

28. Mc Naughten, who shot Edward Drummond was suffering from delusion of

(A) Infidelity

(B) Persecution

(C) Poverty

(D) Nihilism

Answer: (B)

29. ‘Stass-Otto’ process is used for:

(A) Extraction of poisons

(B) Extraction of DNA

(C) Extraction of antigens

(D) Isolation of compliments

Answer: (A)

30. Following is active principle of Abrus:

(A) Abrin

(B) Adbrin

(C) Abrinine

(D) Abricodine

Answer: (A)

31. In case of poisoning of living persons, the following are preserved, except:

(A) Vomit

(B) Excereta

(C) Stomach wash

(D) Unsoiled clothings

Answer: (D)

32. The following wounds will heal without a scar formation:

(A) Abrasion

(B) Laceration

(C) Chop wound

(D) Stab wound

Answer: (A)

33. In firing case muzzle pattern is found in

(A) Contact fire

(B) Firing from 4 ft

(C) Firing from 8 ft

(D) Long distance firing

Answer: (A)

34. Burning, blackening and tattooing are useful for determination of

(A) Time of fire

(B) Distance of fire

(C) Ricocheting of bullet

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B)

35. Pump action of a firearm is also called

(A) Lever action

(B) Bolt action

(C) Trombone action

(D) Air action

Answer: (C)

36. Richochet of bullet means

(A) Penetration of bullet

(B) Deflection of bullet

(C) Unfired bullet

(D) Tandem bullet

Answer: (B)

37. Fouling is useful in determination of approximate

(A) Distance of fire

(B) Time of fire

(C) Penetration of projectile

(D) Velocity of projectile

Answer: (B)

38. Amatol contains

(A) TNT and RDX

(B) TNT and Tetryl

(C) TNT and PETN

(D) TNT and Ammonium Nitrate

Answer: (D)

39. 7.62 mm AK-47 assault rifle has the magazine capacity of

(A) 20

(B) 25

(C) 30

(D) 40

Answer: (C)

40. The ejector is not present in the following:

(A) Carbine

(B) Revolver

(C) Service rifle

(D) Shot gun

Answer: (D)

41. Match the following:

List-I                                                               List-II

(a) Ram rod                                                     (i) Fired Bullet

(b) Chamber marks                                          (ii) Shot gun

(c) Rifling mark                                               (iii) Fired cartridge

(d) Choking of barrel                                      (iv) Muzzle loader

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Answer: (D)

42. Assertion (A): The penetration power of shot gun is more than service rifle.

Reason (R): Rifle produces more energy inside the barrel as compared to shot gun. Codes :

(A) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

(B) (A) is wrong (R) is correct.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (B)

43. The diameter of LG Pellet is

(A) 0.25”

(B) 0.35”

(C) 0.40”

(D) 0.45”

Answer: (B)

44. Walker Test of GSR is done for the identification of presence of

(A) Metallic residue

(B) Nitrate

(C) Sulphur

(D) Nitrite

Answer: (D)

45. It is not the component of rifle Cartridge

(A) Cartridge case

(B) Primer

(C) Projectile

(D) Wad

Answer: (D)

46. Vaginal secretion consists of

(A) Urea

(B) Doderlain’s bacilli

(C) Glyoxalase I

(D) Serum Cholinesterase

Answer: (B)

47. “Counter Immuno Electro Phoresis (CIEP)” is applied detection of

(A) DNA

(B) P30

(C) Protein

(D) Isoenzymes

Answer: (B)

48. Fecal matter as evidence is encountered in cases like

(A) Rape

(B) Murder

(C) Bestiality

(D) Hanging

Answer: (C)

49. The angle of tool application should be considered for making standard tool marks by:

(A) Hammer

(B) Pliers

(C) Screwdriver

(D) Prybar

Answer: (C)

50. Nodes are seen in the following fibre:

(A) Cotton

(B) Wool

(C) Silk

(D) Linen

Answer: (D)

51. 4-R rule is connected with:

(A) Arson

(B) Glass fracture

(C) Fiber

(D) Soil

Answer: (B)

52. A crater – shaped hole in glass is _______ on the side where the projectile entered the glass:

(A) Similar

(B) Narrower

(C) Wider

(D) Irregular

Answer: (B)

53. The most suitable technique for liquid ink individualization is

(A) Reflected light examination

(B) T. L. C

(C) Microscopic examination

(D) Short wave ultra violet light

Answer: (B)

54. The following is considered as part of gait pattern:

(A) Step length

(B) Foot angle

(C) Walking line

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

55. Black mineral colours in the soil are generally related to the presence of the following elements:

(A) Manganese and iron

(B) Copper minerals

(C) Chromium minerals

(D) Iron phosphate minerals

Answer: (A)

56. The following bones are useful for the determination of stature:

(A) Fibula and Pisiform

(B) Radius and Talus

(C) Femur and Ulna

(D) Humerus and Hyoid

Answer: (C)

57. The following is not a feature of a female skull:

(A) Prominent parietal eminence

(B) Prominent frontal eminence

(C) Prominent glabella

(D) Roundish shaped orbits

Answer: (C)

58. The period of mixed dentition extends

(A) 4 – 10 yrs

(B) 4 – 12 yrs

(C) 6 – 12 yrs

(D) 8 – 12 yrs

Answer: (C)

59. The accuracy of sex determination from pelvis is

(A) 80%

(B) 85%

(C) 90%

(D) 95%

Answer: (D)

60. Which of the following sutures of the skull is last to fuse?

(A) Basi-occiput with Basisphenoid

(B) Sagittal

(C) Coronal

(D) Lamdoid

Answer: (D)

61. The total number of carpal bones in a child aged 16 yrs is

(A) 4

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 10

Answer: (C)

62. Assertion (A): A ‘plain’ impression made by ink are unsatisfactory for fingerprint analysis. Reason (R): In ‘plain’ impression, larger number of points or junctions does not appear.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (B)

63. The following forms the finger ridges:

(A) dermal cells

(B) dots or islands

(C) rows of sweat pores

(D) minutiae

Answer: (C)

64. Match the following:

List-I                                       List-II

I. Latent finger prints              1. Fingerprints deposited on paint or blood and readily visible

II. Patent prints                       2. Plain fingerprints

III. Plastic prints                     3. Invisible fingerprints

IV. Tapprints                           4. Fingerprints formed in a soft material like putty

Codes:

I II III IV

(A) 3 2 4 1

(B) 2 4 1 3

(C) 3 1 4 2

(D) 4 3 1 2

Answer: (C)

65. In primary fingerprint classification, following patterns are given numerical value:

(A) Loops

(B) Arches

(C) Whorls

(D) All of the above

Answer: (C)

66. Erasure of a writing using rubber is called:

(A) Mechanical erasure

(B) Soft erasure

(C) Hand erasure

(D) Chemical erasure

Answer: (A)

67. In case of amputation of one finger, the following print is considered in classification:

(A) Next finger of the same hand

(B) Corresponding finger of the other hand

(C) Thumb impression of other hand

(D) Index finger of other hand

Answer: (B)

68. The injury sustained by skin due to an alternating current is called

(A) Brush burn

(B) Filigree burn

(C) Joule burn

(D) Arborescent mark

Answer: (C)

69. Dowry deaths are booked under which Section of Indian Law

(A) 320 IPC

(B) 304 A IPC

(C) 304 B IPC

(D) 375 IPC

Answer: (C)

70. The colour of blood in deaths due to burns is

(A) Cherry red

(B) Pink

(C) Blue

(D) Brown

Answer: (A)

71. Multiple parallel superficial cuts criss-crossing each other are suggestive of

(A) Fabricated wounds

(B) Suicidal wounds

(C) Accidentally sustained wounds

(D) Homicidal wounds

Answer: (B)

72. The greatest dimension of an incised wound is

(A) Breadth

(B) Depth

(C) Length

(D) Breadth and depth are equal

Answer: (C)

73. Appearance of a bruise at a site away from the site of impact is called

(A) Artificial bruise

(B) True bruise

(C) Ectopic bruise

(D) Chemical bruise

Answer: (C)

74. In which of the following injuries foreign bodies are not found?

(A) Grazed abrasion

(B) Chop wound

(C) Lacerated wound

(D) Contusions

Answer: (D)

75. The following factors do not influence in the formation of a bruise:

(A) force used

(B) sex of a person

(C) age of a person

(D) color of a person

Answer: (D)


Year Wise Solved UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 3 Previous Year Question Papers

The old UGC NET Examination paper-3 in Forensic Science were of descriptive type till December 2011.

paper-3 becomes objective type from June 2012 to November 2017. From July 2018 onward, paper-3 was stopped and becomes part of paper-2 itself.

So, the old questions for paper-3 from June 2012 to November 2017 which were of objective type (multiple choice questions) can be used by the UGC NET aspirants for their better preparation for paper 2.

Year Wise NTA UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are given below.

Download Year Wise NTA UGC NET Forensic Science paper 3 Solved Paper
UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2017 November
UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2016 July
UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 June
UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 December
UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 June
UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 December
UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 December
UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 September
UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 June
UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 December
UGC NET Forensic Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June

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