# NTA UGC NET Electronic Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June

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## NTA UGC NET Electronic Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June

NTA UGC NET Electronic Science Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are the best study materials to score good marks in the Electronic Science exam.

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1.

Answer: (B)

2.

Answer: (C)

3. Consider an n-channel depletion mode MOSFET having following parameters:

VTN = –2.5 V and Kn = 1.1 mA/V2

If VGS = 0V and VDS = 0.5 V, then current ID, is

(A) 9.96 mA

(B) 6.43 mA

(C) 2.48 mA

(D) 5.56 mA

Answer: (C)

4. The tie-set schedule gives relation between

(A) branch currents and link currents

(B) branch voltages and link currents

(C) branch currents and link voltages

(D) branch voltages and link voltages

Answer: (A)

5.

Answer: (B)

6. The final value of 2S + 1 / S4 + 8S3 + 16S2 + S is

(A) 0

(B) 

(C) 1

(D) 2

Answer: (C)

7. If differential amplifier has a differential gain of 20,000. CMRR = 80 dB, then common mode gain is

(A) 2

(B) 1

(C) 1/2

(D) 0

Answer: (A)

8. For proper operation of integrators, its RC time constant and period T of the wave should be such that

(A) T >> RC

(B) T << RC

(C) T = RC

(D) T = 2 ln RC

Answer: (B)

9. The phase shift introduced by feed network or amplifier in Wein bridge oscillator is

(A) 0°

(B) 90°

(C) 180°

(D) 270°

Answer: (A)

10. For a certain logic family if VOL = 0.5 V, VIL = 1.2 V and VOH = 3.5 V, VIH = 2.8 V, then the noise margin is

(A) 3 V

(B) 1.7 V

(C) 1.3 V

(D) 0.7 V

Answer: (D)

11.

Answer: (C)

12. Number of flip-flops needed to construct a shift register capable of storing decimal numbers upto 32 are

(A) 6

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 2

Answer: (A)

13. In the mode word format of 8251 during initialization, D6 and D7 bits as 0 and 1 signify

(A) 16 X Baud Rate

(B) Character length as 7 bits

(C) Parity enable and even parity

(D) No. of stop bits as 1(1/2)

Answer: (D)

14. The control word of ‘0B5H’ of 8253 indicates that the following counter is selected

(A) Counter 0

(B) Counter 1

(C) Counter 2

(D) Counter 3

Answer: (C)

15. In 8051, Pin 30 (ALE / PROG), if this bit is set as logic zero (‘0’), it signifies

(A) Address is latched

(B) For enabling internal ROM of programming

(C) For disabling internal ROM programming

(D) Both (A) and (C)

Answer: (B)

16. The expression a = 7/22 * (3.14 + 2) * 3/5 evaluates to

(A) 8.28

(B) 6.28

(C) 3.14

(D) 0

Answer: (D)

17. Which escape sequence takes the cursor to the beginning of the current line?

(A) n

(B) r

(C) a

(D) t

Answer: (B)

18.

Answer: (A)

19.

Answer: (D)

20. The depth of penetration of a wave in a lossy dielectric increases with increasing

(A) Conductivity

(B) Permeability

(C) Wavelength

(D) Permittivity

Answer: (C)

21. A very lossy, 4 long, 50 ohm transmission line is open circuited at the load end. The input impedance measured at the other end of the line is approximately

(A) 0

(B) 50 ohm

(C) 

(D) 200 ohm

Answer: (A)

22. In the spectrum of frequency modulated wave

(A) The carrier frequency disappears when the modulation index is large.

(B) The amplitude of any side band depends on the modulation index.

(C) The total number of side bands depends on the modulation index.

(D) The carrier frequency cannot disappear.

Answer: (D)

23. Indicate which one of the following is not an advantage of FM over AM:

(A) Better noise immunity is provided

(B) Lower bandwidth is required

(C) The transmitted power is more useful

(D) Less modulating power is required

Answer: (A)

24. Indicate the noise source which belongs to category a different from that of the other three.

(A) Solar noise

(B) Cosmic noise

(C) Atmospheric noise

(D) Galactic noise

Answer: (C)

25.

Answer: (A)

26.

Answer: (B)

27. Dispersion shifted wavelength in optical fiber is

(A) 800 nm

(B) 1300 nm

(C) 1550 nm

(D) 400 nm

Answer: (C)

28. The problem, with PI controller is its response to transients, is

(A) very fast

(B) having a dead zone

(C) non-linear

(D) sluggish

Answer: (D)

29. Which is the most linear temperature transducer?

(A) Thermocouple

(B) RTD

(C) IC-sensor

(D) Thermistor

Answer: (C)

30. The variations in the ambient temperature effect the following parameters:

(A) Sensitivity

(B) Accuracy

(C) Stability

(D) Above all
Answer: (A)

31. Consider the following statements regarding a semiconductor:

I. Acceptor level lies close to valence band.

II. Donor level lies close to valence band.

III. n-type semiconductor behaves as a conductor at 0 °K.

IV. p-type semiconductor behaves as an insulator at 0 °K.

(A) I and II are correct.

(B) I and III are correct.

(C) II and III are correct.

(D) I and IV are correct.

Answer: (D)

32. A network is said to be linear if and only if

I. Response is proportional to excitation function

II. Principle of superposition applies

III. Principle of homogeneity applies

IV. It is reciprocal

(A) Options I and II are correct.

(B) Options II and III are correct.

(C) Options III and IV are correct.

(D) Options I and IV are correct.

Answer: (B)

33.

Answer: (C)

34. Which of the following statements are correct?

I. A flip – flop is used to store 1-bit =of information

II. Race-around condition occurs in a J-K flip – flop when both inputs are I.

III. A transparent latch consists of a D-type flip – flop

(A) I and II are correct.

(B) I and III are correct.

(C) I, II and III are correct.

(D) I, II and III are not correct.

Answer: (C)

35.

Answer: (D)

36. Which of the following statements will store value 3 in the variable a?

I. a = 15% 4;

II. int a = (3 * 4) / (1 + 3) ;

III. int a = 3 ;

IV. int a = 6.0/2 ;

(A) Options I, II and III are correct.

(B) Options II, III and IV are correct.

(C) Options I and III are correct.

(D) Options II and IV are correct.

Answer: (A)

37. In a rectangular metallic waveguide

I. Guided wavelength is never less than the free space wavelength

II. TEM mode is possible if the dimensions are properly chosen

III. vp × vg = C2

IV. waves travel along all the four walls of the waveguide

(A) Options I and III are correct.

(B) Options III and IV are correct.

(C) Options II and III are correct.

(D) Options I and IV are correct.

Answer: (A)

38. Indicate the false statement in the case of Armstrong modulation system.

I. The system is basically phase and frequency modulation.

II. The system is also amplitude modulation.

III. Frequency multiplication must be used.

IV. Equalization is unnecessary.

(A) I and II are correct.

(B) I, II and III are correct.

(C) I and III are correct.

(D) III and IV are correct.

Answer: (C)

39. DIAC is a

I. 2 terminal unidirectional switch

II. 2 terminal bi-directional switch

III. 3 layers and no gate device

IV. 4 layers and no gate device

(A) Options II and III are correct.

(B) Options II and IV are correct.

(C) Options I and III are correct.

(D) Options I and IV are correct.

Answer: (B)

40. In a DVM, the accuracy of the measurement depends on I. No. of A/D conversions in a second.

II. The resolution of A/D converter.

III. A statistical processing of samples and a huge memory.

IV. Speed of the processor should be high.

(A) I, II and III are to be fulfilled

(B) II, III and IV are to be fulfilled

(C) I, III and IV are to be fulfilled

(D) I, II and IV are to be fulfilled

Answer: (B)

Assertion-Reason type questions:

Q. 41 to 50: The following items consist of two statements, one labelled the ‘Assertion

(A)’ and the other labelled the ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.

41. Assertion (A): A BJT is said to be operating in a saturation region if both the junctions are forward biased.

Reason (R): In saturation region collector doping concentration is reduced.

Answer: (B)

42.

Answer: (B)

43. Assertion (A): Schmit trigger employs positive feedback and has hysteresis property that helps to compare two voltage levels.

Reason (R): In some logic circuits rise and fall time play important role in switching. Schmit trigger improves the rise and fall time.

Answer: (A)

44. Assertion (A): The fan out of a CMOS gate is poor.

Reason (R): The current driving capability of CMOS is poor.

Answer: (D)

45. Assertion (A): In 8085 processor, lower byte of address bus and data bus are multiplexed. A latch is required to separate address lines and data lines.

Reason (R): Multiplexing makes processor slow speed and compact.

Answer: (B)

46. Assertion (A): Relational operators cannot be used to evaluate whether a condition evaluates to true (T) or false (F).

Reason (R): Use of ‘=’ as relational operator will form a syntax error.

Answer: (D)

47.

Answer: (C)

48. Assertion (A): Radio and Television receivers are generally of superheterodyne type.

Reason (R): Wireless communication is possible by receiving signals through superheterodyne receivers.

Answer: (B)

49. Assertion (A): The LED is a light emitting diode, that gives out spontaneous emissions, when it is energized.

Reason (R): The recombination of holes and electrons in semiconductor materials gives off energy in terms of light and heat.

Answer: (A)

50. Assertion (A): Power is integration of energy over a period of time.

Reason (R): The accuracy of power measurement is dependent on integration time constant.

Answer: (A)

51. Arrange the following in the increasing order of their forbidden energy gap:

I. Conductors

II. Insulators

III. Germanium

IV. Silicon

(A) I, II, III, IV

(B) I, II, IV, III

(C) I, III, IV, II

(D) I, IV, III,II

Answer: (C)

52. The correct order in which time domain response is obtained for a network

I. Laplace transform

II. Differential equation

III. Time domain response

IV. Network

(A) I, II, III, IV

(B) II, III, IV, I

(C) III, IV, II, I

(D) IV, II, I, III

Answer: (D)

53. The correct start to end sections of a regulator circuit are

I. Filtering

II. Protection

III. Rectification

IV. Regulation

(A) II, I, III, IV

(B) III, II, IV, I

(C) I, III, IV, II

(D) IV, II, I, III

Answer: (C)

54. Arrange the following logic families in the decreasing order of their propagation delay:

I. CMOS

II. TTL

III. ECL

IV. DTL

(A) II, III, IV, I

(B) IV, II, III, I

(C) III, I, II, IV

(D) I, IV, II, III

Answer: (D)

55. The interrupts in 8085 processor are

I. RST 6.5

II. RST 5.5

III. TRAP

IV. RST 0

Keep the sequence from least priority to highest priority.

(A) III, I, II, IV

(B) IV, I, II, III

(C) IV, II, I, III (D) III, IV, II, I

Answer: (C)

56. The correct sequence to write a loop statement is formed

I. body

II. main( )

III. test condition

IV. initialization

(A) I, IV, II, III

(B) IV, III, I, II

(C) III, II, IV, I

(D) II, IV, III, I

Answer: (D)

57. The following frequency bands are used in microwaves:

I. Ku band

II. Ka band

III. L band

IV. C band

The correct sequence in decreasing frequency is by:

(A) II, III, IV, I

(B) I, II, III, IV

(C) II, I, III, IV

(D) II, I, IV, III

Answer: (D)

58. Consider the following communication systems:

I. Microwave communication system

II. Optical communication system

III. AM Broadcast system

IV. FM Broadcast system

The correct sequence of these systems from the point of view of increasing order of bandwidth is

(A) II, I, IV, III

(B) I, II, III, IV

(C) III, IV, II, I

(D) IV, III, I, II

Answer: (A)

59. The following are the fibers used in optical communication systems:

I. Plastic fibers

II. Plastic clad glass fibers

III. Glass fibers operating at 1330 nm

IV. Glass fibers operating at 1550 nm

The correct sequence of attenuation of the above fibers in increasing order are:

(A) I, II, III, IV

(B) IV, III, II, I

(C) II, I, IV, III

(D) IV, II, I, III

Answer: (B)

60. Arrange the steps given below in correct order:

I. Network function

II. Change of sign

III. Stability

IV. Routh array

The order in which the stability is evaluated using Routh criterion:

(A) I, III, II, IV

(B) I, IV, II, III

(C) IV, I, III, II

(D) III, II, I, IV

Answer: (B)

61. Match the given list of devices with their respective application :

List-I                                                   List-II

(a) Diode                                             (i) Rectification

(b) Tunnel diode                                 (ii) Microwave switching

(c) Zener diode                                   (iii) Oscillator

(d) PIN diode                                                 (iv) Voltage regulator

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

(B) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(D) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

Answer: (A)

62. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using codes given below:

List-I                                                               List-II

(a) Voltage source in a branch                        (i) Polar capacitor

(b) Hysteresis                                                  (ii) Super node

(c) Non-bilateral                                              (iii) h-parameters

(d) Transistor small signal model                    (iv) Avoid false triggering

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(B) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(C) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

Answer: (C)

63. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using codes given below:

List-I                                                                           List-II

(a) Gating pulse                                                           (i) BJT

(b) Series pass element                                                (ii) Monostable multivibrator

(c) Lock range                                                             (iii) Voltage regulator

(d) Base width modulation                                         (iv) PLL

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

Answer: (B)

64. Match the following list:

List-I                                                               List-II

(a) Positive OR                                               (i) Negative NAND

(b) Positive AND                                            (ii) Negative AND

(c) Positive NOR                                            (iii) Negative OR

(d) Positive NAND                                         (iv) Negative NOR

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(B) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

(C) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(D) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

Answer: (D)

65. Match the following:

List-I                                                               List-II

(a) MOV A, B                                                 (i) Logical instruction

(b) JNC =address                                            (ii) Arithmetic instruction

(c) OR A, B                                                    (iii) Data transfer

(d) ADD A, H                                                (iv) Branching  instruction

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(D) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

Answer: (B)

66. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using codes given below:

List-I                                                                           List-II

(a) call by reference                                                     (i) Incorrect statement

(b) size of (float);                                                        (ii) Function

(c) &                                                                            (iii) 4

(d) return (a, b);                                                           (iv) bitwise AND

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Answer: (C)

67. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List-I                                                               List-II

(a) Ferrite devices                                           (i) Oscillator

(b) Magnetron                                                 (ii) Bunching

(c) Klystron                                                     (iii) Cross field devices

(d) Gun-diode                                                 (iv) Circulators

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(C) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Answer: (B)

68. Match the following:

List-I                                                   List-II

(a) Digital Filters                                 (i) More channels are =accommodated

(b) Signal Processing                           (ii) Slow speed of data transfer

(c) Time Division Mulplexing (iii) Hardware techniques

(d) Frequency Division Multiplexing  (iv) Software Btechniques

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Answer: (A)

69. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List-I                                                               List-II

(a) Fan regulator                                              (i) Two transistor model

(b) SCR                                                           (ii) dc-dc conversion

(c) Choppers                                                    (iii) Triac-Diac pair

(d) Quantum efficiency                                  (iv) LED

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(B) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

Answer: (C)

70. Match the following :

List-I                                                               List-II

(a) Small displacement                                    (i) DSO

(b) Phase measurement                                   (ii) X-ray diffractometer

(c) Slowly varying signals                               (iii) CRO

(d) Crystal structure                                        (iv) LVDT

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(C) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(D) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

Answer: (A)

Read the following paragraph and answer the questions 71 to 75:

An operational amplifier is a direct coupled high gain amplifier with feedback. It is employed to perform a wide variety of functions such as summer, integrator, differentiator, logarithmic amplifier, oscillators, filters, comparators voltage to frequency converter, amplitude modulators, sample and hold circuit and so on.

An ideal Op-Amp has infinite input =resistance, zero output resistance, infinite voltage gain and bandwidth, zero offset and no drift. An ideal Op-Amp is a perfectly balanced circuit such that output voltage is zero for two equal input signals. However a real Op-Amp exhibits imbalance due to mismatch at the input differential stage. It gives rise to offsets. In practical applications offsets are removed using balancing networks. In general an Op-Amp consists of the following four stages:

(1) Differential amplifier first stage

(2) Differential amplifier second stage

(3) Emitter follower

(4) Level translator and output stage It is most widely used analog device.

71. Which is a non-linear application?

(A) I-V converter

(B) Sample-and-hold

(C) Voltage follower

(D) Active filter

Answer: (B)

72. Analog multiplication is carried out with

(A) Scalar

(B) Precision rectifier

(C) Sample-and-hold circuit

(D) Logarithmic amplifier

Answer: (D)

73. Very high input resistance differential stages are used in Op-Amp

(A) To minimise input offset voltage

(B) To minimise output offset voltage

(C) To minimise input offset current

(D) To minimise output offset current

Answer: (C)

74. If VDC = 5V is applied to the input of a differentiator circuit its output will be

(A) Zero

(B) Square pulse

(C) Ramp

(D) 5 V

Answer: (A)

75.

## Year Wise Solved UGC NET Electronic Science Paper 3 Previous Year Question Papers

The old UGC NET Examination paper-3 in Electronic Science was of descriptive type till December 2011.

paper-3 becomes objective type from June 2012 to November 2017. From July 2018 onward, paper-3 was stopped and becomes part of paper-2 itself.

So, the old questions for paper-3 from June 2012 to November 2017 which were of objective type (multiple choice questions) can be used by the UGC NET aspirants for their better preparation for paper 2.

Year Wise NTA UGC NET Electronic Science Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are given below.

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