NTA UGC NET Computer Science and Applications Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 June

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NTA UGC NET Computer Science and Applications Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 June

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1. The Software Maturity Index (SMI) is defined as SMI = [M– (Fa + Fc + Fd)] / Mf Where Mf = the number of modules in the current release.

Fa = the number of modules in the current release that have been added.

Fc = the number of modules in the current release that have been changed.

Fd = the number of modules in the current release that have been deleted.

The product begins to stabilize when

(A) SMI approaches 1

(B) SMI approaches 0

(C) SMI approaches –1

(D) None of the above

2. Match the following:

a. Watson- Felix model                                   i. Failure intensity

b. Quick-Fix model                                         ii. Cost estimation

c. Putnam resource allocation model              iii. Project planning

d. Log arithmetic- Poisson Model                  iv. Maintenance

Codes:

a b c d

(A) ii i iv iii

(B) i ii iv iii

(C) ii i iii iv

(D) ii iv iii i

3. __________ is a process model that removes defects before they can precipitate serious hazards.

(A) Incremental model

(B) Spiral model

(C) Cleanroom software engineering

(D) Agile model

4. Equivalence partitioning is a __________ method that divides the input domain of a program into classes of data from which test cases can be derived.

(A) White-box testing

(B) Black-box testing

(C) Orthogonal array testing

(D) Stress testing

5. The following three golden rules:

(i) Place the user in control

(ii) Reduce the user’s memory load

(iii) Make the interface consistent are for

(A) User satisfaction

(B) Good interface design

(C) Saving system’s resources

(D) None of these

6. Software safety is a __________ activity that focuses on the identification and assessment of potential hazards that may affect software negatively and cause an entire system to fail.

(A) Risk mitigation, monitoring and management

(B) Software quality assurance

(C) Software cost estimation

(D) Defect removal efficiency

7. The “PROJECT” operator of a relational algebra creates a new table that has always

(A) More columns than columns in original table

(B) More rows than original table

(C) Same number of rows as the original table

(D) Same number of columns as the original table

8. The employee information of an Organization is stored in the relation: Employee (name, sex, salary, deptname)

Consider the following SQL query Select deptname from Employee Where sex = ‘M’ group by deptname having avg (salary) > {select avg (salary) from Employee}

Output of the given query corresponds to

(A) Average salary of employee more than average salary of the organization.

(B) Average salary less than average salary of the organization.

(C) Average salary of employee equal to average salary of the organization.

(D) Average salary of male employees in a department is more than average salary of the organization.

9. For a database relation R(a, b, c, d) where the domains of a, b, c, d include only the atomic values. The functional dependency a → c, b → d holds in the following relation

(A) In 1NF not in 2NF

(B) In 2NF not in 3NF

(C) In 3NF

(D) In 1NF

10. Match the following:

a. RAID 0       i. Bit interleaved parity

b. RAID 1       ii. Non redundant stripping

c. RAID 2       iii. Mirrored disks

d. RAID 3       iv. Error correcting codes

Codes:

a b c d

(A) iv i ii iii

(B) iii iv i ii

(C) iii i iv ii

(D) iii ii iv i

11.

12.

13. In any n-element heap, the number of nodes of height h is

(A) less than equal to [n/2h]

(B) greater than [n/2h]

(C) greater than [n/2h + 1]

(D) less than equal to [n/2h + 1]

14. A data file of 1,00,000 characters contains only the characters g-l, with the frequencies as indicated in table :

g          h          i           j           k          l

Frequency in thousand            45        13        12        16        9          5

using the variable-length code by Huffman codes, the file can be encoded with

(A) 2,52,000 bits

(B) 2,64,000 bits

(C) 2,46,000 bits

(D) 2,24,000 bits

15. A vertex cover of an undirected graph G(V, E) is a subset V1  V vertices such that

(A) Each pair of vertices in V1 is connected by an edge

(B) If (u, v)  E then u  V1 and v  V1

(C) If (u, v)  E then u  V1 or v  V1

(D) All pairs of vertices in V1 are not connected by an edge

Questions: 23, 69

16. In a fully connected mesh network with n devices, there are ________ physical channels to link all devices.

(A) n(n–1)/2

(B) n(n+1)/2

(C) 2n

(D) 2n+1

17. The baud rate of a signal is 600 baud/second. If each signal unit carries 6 bits, then the bit rate of a signal is ________.

(A) 3600

(B) 100

(C) 6/600

(D) None of the above

18. Match the following:

a. Data link layer         i. Flow control

b. Network layer         ii. Node to node delivery

c. Transport layer        iii. Mail services

d. Application layer    iv. Routing

Codes:

a b c d

(A) ii i iv iii

(B) ii iv i iii

(C) ii i iii iv

(D) ii iv iii i

19. An image is 1024800 pixels with 3 bytes/pixel. Assume the image is uncompressed. How long does it take to transmit it over a 10-Mbps Ethernet?

(A) 196.6 seconds

(B) 19.66 seconds

(C) 1.966 seconds

(D) 0.1966 seconds

20. The ________ measures the relative strengths of two signals or a signal at two different points.

(A) Frequency

(B) Attenuation

(C) Throughput

(D) Decibel

21. Which one of the following media is multidrop?

(A) Shielded Twisted pair cable

(B) Unshielded Twisted pair cable

(C) Thick Coaxial cable

(D) Fiber Optic cable

22. What is the baud rate of the standard 10 Mbps Ethernet?

(A) 10 mega baud

(B) 20 mega baud

(C) 30 mega baud

(D) 40 mega baud

23. At any iteration of simplex method, if Δj (Zj – Cj) corresponding to any non-basic variable Xj is obtained as zero, the solution under the test is

(A) Degenerate solution

(B) Unbounded solution

(C) Alternative solution

(D) Optimal solution

24. A basic feasible solution to a m-origin, n-destination transportation problem is said to be _________ if the number of positive allocations are less than m + n – 1.

(A) Degenerate

(B) Non-degenerate

(C) Unbounded

(D) Unbalanced

25. The total transportation cost in an initial basic feasible solution to the following transportation problem using Vogel’s Approximation method is

W1      W2      W3      W4      W5      Supply

F1                    4          2          3          2          6          8

F2                    5          4          5          2          1          12

F3                    6          5          4          7          3          14

Demand          4          4          6          8          8

(A) 76

(B) 80

(C) 90

(D) 96

26. An actor in an animation is a small program invoked _______ per frame to determine the characteristics of some object in the animation.

(A) Once

(B) Twice

(C) 30 times

(D) 60 times

27. Bresenham line drawing algorithm is attractive because it uses

(A) Real arithmetic only

(B) Integer arithmetic only

(C) Floating point arithmetic

(D) Real and integer arithmetic

28. The refresh rate above which a picture stops flickering and fuses into a steady image is called _________.

(A) Crucial fusion frequency

(B) Current frequency fusion

(C) Critical fusion frequency

(D) Critically diffused frequency

29. In homogenous coordinate system (x, y, z) the points with z = 0 are called

(A) Cartesian points

(B) Parallel points

(C) Origin point

(D) Point at infinity

30. If 40 black lines interleaved with 40 white lines can be distinguished across one inch, the resolution is

(A) 40 line-pairs per inch

(B) 80 line-pairs per inch

(C) 1600 lines per inch

(D) 40 lines per inch

31. Images tend to be very large collection of data. The size of memory required for a 1024 by 1024 image in which the colour of each pixel is represented by a n-bit number, (in an 8 bit machines) is

(A) n × 8 MB

(B) n / 8 MB

(C) (1024 × 1024) / 8 MB

(D) 1024 MB

32. Arrays in C language can have _________ with reference to memory representation.

(A) n-subscripts

(B) two-subscripts

(C) Only one subscript

(D) Three subscripts only

33. Refer the points as listed below:

(a) What are the operator precedence rules?

(b) What are the operator associativity rules?

(c) What is the order of operand evaluation?

(d) Are there restrictions on operand evaluation side effects?

Which of the above must be considered as primary design issues for arithmetic expressions?

(A) (a), (b) and (c)

(B) (a), (c) and (d)

(C) (a), (b) and (d)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

34. Horn clauses are special kinds of propositions which can be described as

(A) Single atomic proposition on left side.

(B) Single or multiple atomic propositions on left side.

(C) A single atomic proposition on left side and a single atomic proposition on right side.

(D) A single atomic proposition on left side or an empty left side.

35. Which of the following is/are the fundamental semantic model(s) of parameter passing?

(A) In mode

(B) Out mode

(C) in-out mode

(D) all of the above

36. The grammar with production rules S → aSb |SS|λ generates language L given by:

(A) L = {w {a, b}* | na (w) = nb (w) and na (v) ≥ nb (v) where v is any prefix of w}

(B) L = {w {a, b}* | na (w) = nb (w) and na (v) ≤ nb (v) where v is any prefix of w}

(C) L = {w {a, b}* | na (w) ≠ n(w) and na (v) ≥ nb (v) where v is any prefix of w}

(D) L = {w {a, b}* | na (w) ≠ nb (w) and na (v) ≤ nb (v) where v is any prefix of w}

37. A pushdown automation M = (Q, Σ, Γ, δ, q0, z, F) is set to be deterministic subject to which of the following condition(s), for every q  Q, a  Σ  {λ} and b  Γ

(s1) δ (q, a, b) contains at most one element

(s2) if δ (q, λ, b) is not empty then δ(q, c, b) must be empty for every c  Σ

(A) Only s1

(B) Only s2

(C) Both s1 and s2

(D) Neither s1 nor s2

38. For every context free grammar (G) there exists an algorithm that passes any w  L (G) in number of steps proportional to

(A) ln|w|

(B) |w|

(C) |w|2

(D) |w|3

39. Match the following:

a. Context sensitive language                         i. Deterministic finite automation

b. Regular grammar                             ii. Recursive enumerable

c. Context free grammar                     iii. Recursive language

d. Unrestricted grammar                     iv. Pushdown automation

Codes:

a b c d

(A) ii i iv iii

(B) iii iv i ii

(C) iii i iv ii

(D) ii iv i iii

40. The statements s1 and s2 are given as:

s1: Context sensitive languages are closed under intersection, concatenation, substitution and inverse homomorphism.

s2: Context free languages are closed under complementation, substitution and homomorphism.

Which of the following is correct statement?

(A) Both s1 and s2 are correct.

(B) s1 is correct and s2 is not correct.

(C) s1 is not correct and s2 is correct.

(D) Both s1 and s2 are not correct.

41. Which one of the following is not an addressing mode?

(A) Register indirect

(B) Auto increment

(C) Relative indexed

(D) Immediate operand

42. Computers can have instruction formats with

43. Which is not a typical program control instruction?

(A) BR

(B) JMP

(C) SHL

(D) TST

44. Interrupt which arises from illegal or erroneous use of an instruction or data is

(A) Software interrupts

(B) Internal interrupt

(C) External interrupts

(D) All of the above

45. The simplified function in product of sums of Boolean function F(W, X, Y, Z) = Σ(0, 1, 2, 5, 8, 9, 10) is

(A) (W’ + X’) (Y’ + Z’) (X’ + Z)

(B) (W’ + X’) (Y’ + Z’) (X’ + Z’)

(C) (W’ + X’) (Y’ + Z) (X’ + Z)

(D) (W’ + X’) (Y + Z’) (X’ + Z)

46. Match the following:

a. TTL                         i. High component density

b. ECL                        ii. Low power consumption

c. MOS                        iii. Evolution of “diode transistor- logic”

d. CMOS                    iv. High speed digital circuits

Codes:

a b c d

(A) iii ii i iv

(B) i iv iii ii

(C) iii iv i ii

(D) i ii iii iv

47. Match the following:

a. Foreign keys                                    i. Domain constraint

b. Private key                                      ii. Referential integrity

c. Event control action model             iii. Encryption

d. Data security                                   iv. Trigger

Codes:

a b c d

(A) iii ii i iv

(B) ii i iv iii

(C) iii iv i ii

(D) i ii iii iv

48. When an array is passed as a parameter to a function which of the following statements is correct?

(A) The function can change values in the original array.

(B) The function cannot change values in the original array.

(C) Results in compilation error.

(D) Results in runtime error.

49. Suppose you want to delete the name that occurs before “Vivek” in an alphabetical listing. Which of the following data structures shall be most efficient for this operation?

(D) Dequeue

50. What will be the output of the following segment of the program ?

main( )

{

char *s = “hello world”;

int i = 7;

printf(“%, *s”, i, s);

}

(A) Syntax error

(B) hello w

(C) hello

(D) o world

51. Trace the error :

void main( )

{

int *b, &a;

*b = 20

printf(“%d, %d”, a, *b)

}

(A) No error

(B) Logical error

(C) Syntax error

(D) Semantic error

52. Match the following:

a. calloc( )        i. Frees previously allocated space

b. free( )          ii. Modifies previously allocated space

c. malloc( )      iii. Allocates space for array

d. realloc( )      iv. Allocates requested size of space

Codes:

a b c d

(A) iii i iv ii

(B) iii ii i iv

(C) iii iv i ii

(D) iv ii iii i

53. Binary symmetric channel uses

(A) Half duplex protocol

(B) Full duplex protocol

(C) Bit oriented protocol

(D) None of the above

54. Hamming distance between 100101000110 and 110111101101 is

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 6

55. Given code word 1110001010 is to be transmitted with even parity check bit. The encoded word to be transmitted for this code is

(A) 11100010101

(B) 11100010100

(C) 1110001010

(D) 111000101

56. The number of distinct binary images which can be generated from a given binary image of right M × N are

(A) M + N

(B) M × N

(C) 2M + N

(D) 2MN

57. If f(x, y) is a digital image, then x, y and amplitude values of f are

(A) Finite

(B) Infinite

(C) Neither finite nor infinite

(D) None of the above

58. Consider the following processes with time slice of 4 milliseconds (I/O requests are ignored):

Process            A B C D

Arrival time     0 123

CPU cycle       8 495

The average turnaround time of these processes will be

(A) 19.25 milliseconds

(B) 18.25 milliseconds

(C) 19.5 milliseconds

(D) 18.5 milliseconds

59. A job has four pages A, B, C, D and the main memory has two page frames only. The job needs to process its pages in following order: ABACABDBACD Assuming that a page interrupt occurs when a new page is brought in the main memory, irrespective of whether the page is swapped out or not. The number of page interrupts in FIFO and LRU page replacement algorithms are

(A) 9 and 7

(B) 7 and 6

(C) 9 and 8

(D) 8 and 6

60. Suppose S and Q are two semaphores initialized to 1. P1 and P2 are two processes which are sharing resources.

P1 has statements                    P2 has statements

Wait(S);                                   wait (Q);

Wait (Q);                                 wait(S);

Critical section 1;                    critical section 2;

Signal(S); signal (Q);               signal (Q); signal(S);

Their execution may sometimes lead to an undesirable situation called

(A) Starvation

(B) Race condition

61. An operating system using banker’s algorithm for deadlock avoidance has ten dedicated devices (of same type) and has three processes P1, P2 and P3 with maximum resource requirements of 4, 5 and 8 respectively. There are two states of allocation of devices as follows:

State 1 Processes         P1 P2 P3

Devices allocated        2 3 4

State 2 Processes         P1 P2 P3

Devices allocated        0 2 4

Which of the following is correct?

(A) State 1 is unsafe and state 2 is safe.

(B) State 1 is safe and state 2 is unsafe.

(C) Both, state 1 and state 2 are safe.

(D) Both, state 1 and state 2 are unsafe.

62. Let the time taken to switch between user mode and kernel mode of execution be T1 while time taken to switch between two user processes be T2. Which of the following is correct?

(A) T1 < T2

(B) T1 > T2

(C) T1 = T2

(D) Nothing can be said about the relation between T1 and T2.

63. Working set model is used in memory management to implementthe concept of

(A) Swapping

(B) Principal of Locality

(C) Segmentation

(D) Thrashing

64. A UNIX file system has 1 KB block size and 4-byte disk addresses. What is the maximum file size if the inode contains ten direct block entries, one single indirect block entry, one double indirect block entry and one triple indirect block entry?

(A) 30 GB

(B) 64 GB

(C) 16 GB

(D) 1 GB

65. A thread is usually defined as a light weight process because an Operating System (OS) maintains smaller data structure for a thread than for a process. In relation to this, which of the following statement is correct?

(A) OS maintains only scheduling and accounting information for each thread.

(B) OS maintains only CPU registers for each thread.

(C) OS does not maintain a separate stack for each thread.

(D) OS does not maintain virtual memory state for each thread.

66. The versions of windows operating system like windows XP and window Vista uses following file system:

(A) FAT-16

(B) FAT-32

(C) NTFS (NT File System)

(D) All of the above

67. Which one of the following is a correct implementation of the meta-predicate “not” in PROLOG (Here G represents a goal)?

(A) not (G):– !, call(G), fail. not(G).

(B) not (G):– call(G), !, fail. not(G).

(C) not (G):– call(G), fail, !. not(G).

(D) not (G):– call(G), fail. not(G):– !.

68. Which one of the following is not an informed search technique?

(A) Hill climbing search

(B) Best first search

(C) A* search

(D) Depth first search

69. If we convert y (P(f(u),v, x, y) → Q(u,v,y)) to x (P(f(a),v, x, g(v,x)) → Q(a,v,g(v,x)))

This process is known as

(A) Simplification

(B) Unification

(C) Skolemization

(D) Resolution

70. Given two jugs of capacities 5 litres and 3 litres with no measuring markers on them. Assume that there is endless supply of water. Then the minimum number of states to measure 4 litres water will be

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 7

71. The map colouring problem can be solved using which of the following technique?

(A) Means-end analysis

(B) Constraint satisfaction

(C) AO* search

72. Which of the following is a knowledge representation technique used to represent knowledge about stereotype situation?

(A) Semantic network

(B) Frames

(C) Scripts

(D) Conceptual Dependency

73. A fuzzy set A on R is ________ iff A (λx1 + (1 – λ) x2) ≥ min [A(x1), A(x2)] for all x1, x2  R and all λ  [0, 1], where min denotes the minimum operator.

(A) Support

(B) α-cut

(C) Convex

(D) Concave

74.

75.

Year Wise Solved UGC NET Computer Science and Applications Paper 3 Previous Year Question Papers

The old UGC NET Examination paper-3 in Computer Science and Applications was of descriptive type till December 2011.

paper-3 becomes objective type from June 2012 to November 2017. From July 2018 onward, paper-3 was stopped and becomes part of paper-2 itself.

So, the old questions for paper-3 from June 2012 to November 2017 which were of objective type (multiple choice questions) can be used by the UGC NET aspirants for their better preparation for paper 2.

Year Wise NTA UGC NET Computer Science and Applications Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are given below.

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