NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 September

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NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 September

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1. Ideal temperature for storage of DPT vaccine at PHC level is

(A) 0 °C

(B) 2 to 8 °C

(C) Room temperature

(D) –20 °C

Answer: (B)

2. The drug of choice for chemo prophylaxis in Meningococcal Meningitis is

(A) Erythromycin

(B) Streptomycin

(C) Rifampicin

(D) Tetracycline

Answer: (Wrong question)

3. Most of the ElTor vibrios isolated in India belong to the

(A) Inaba serotype

(B) Ogawa serotype

(C) Hitojima serotype

(D) NAG serotype

Answer: (B)

4. Antibiotic of choice for treating cholera in adults except in pregnant women is

(A) Single dose of doxycycline 300 mg

(B) Tetracycline 500 mg 4 times a day and 3 days

(C) Furazolidone 100 mg 4 times a day and 3 days

(D) Trimethoprim (160 mg) + sulfamethoxazole (800 mg) twice a day × (multi-symbol 3 days

Answer: (Wrong question)

5. Sample registration system was initiated to provide

(A) Reliable estimates of birth and death rates at National and State levels

(B) Reliable estimates of population size

(C) Reliable estimates of morbidity pattern

(D) Reliable cause of death at National and State level

Answer: (A)

6. The commonest side effect of IUCD is

(A) Pain

(B) Pelvic infections

(C) Uterine perforation

(D) Increased vaginal bleeding

Answer: (D)

7. The cut off point for blood lead level above which clinical symptoms appear is

(A) 20 μg/100 ml

(B) 50 μg/100 ml

(C) 70 μg/100 ml

(D) 100 μg/100 ml

Answer: (C)

8. The incubation period of tetanus is usually

(A) 2 to 5 days

(B) 6 to 10 days

(C) 12 to 15 days

(D) 15 to 20 days

Answer: (B)

9. The additional daily calorie requirement during pregnancy is

(A) 300 Kcals

(B) 400 Kcals

(C) 500 Kcals

(D) 550 Kcals

Answer: (Wrong question)

10. As per the Central Births and Deaths Registration Act 1969, the time limit for registration of births without fine is

(A) 10 days

(B) 14 days

(C) 20 days

(D) 28 days

Answer: (Wrong question)

11. The Dosage of Fenthion used as Larvicide in mosquito control is

(A) 1 to 2 g/hectare

(B) 2 to 20 g/hectare

(C) 224 to 672 g/hectare

(D) 22 to 112 g/hectare

Answer: (D)

12. Daily requirement of vitamin C for an adult is

(A) 20 mg

(B) 40 mg

(C) 60 mg

(D) 80 mg

Answer: (B)

13. Gomez classification of PEM is based on

(A) weight for age

(B) weight for height

(C) height for age

(D) mid arm circumference

Answer: (A)

14. The life cycle of Malarial parasites in man may be described as

(A) Propagative

(B) Cyclo-propagative

(C) Cyclo-developmental

(D) A sexual cycle

Answer: (D)

15. Trypsin inhibitor is present in

(A) Hen egg

(B) Duck egg

(C) Milk

(D) Fish

Answer: (B)

16. What is the population norm for mini-Anganwadi centre in a tribal/ desert/riverine/hilly and other difficult areas?

(A) 150 – 300

(B) 300 – 400

(C) 100 – 200

(D) 150 – 250

Answer: (A)

17. Which of the following diseases is found in India?

(A) West Nile fever

(B) Murray valley encephalitis

(C) Yellow fever

(D) Colorado tick fever

Answer: (A)

18. Net Protein Utilization (NPU) is estimated from

(A) Biological value alone

(B) Biological value and protein efficiency ratio

(C) Biological value and digestibility coefficient

(D) Protein efficiency ratio alone

Answer: (C)

19. Sick New Born Care Units (SNCUS) are established at which of the following facilities?

(A) First Referral unit

(B) District Hospital

(C) Community Health Centre

(D) Medical College

Answer: (B)

20. A corrected effective temperature of how many degree Celsius is considered comfortable in India?

(A) 20 °C – 30 °C

(B) 20 °C – 25 °C

(C) 27 °C – 30 °C

(D) 25 °C – 27 °C

Answer: (D)

21. The cut off point for diagnosis of anaemia in children aged 6-14 years as recommended by WHO Expert Group is

(A) 13.8 g/dl haemoglobin

(B) 11.5 g/dl haemoglobin

(C) 12 g/dl haemoglobin

(D) 10 g/dl haemoglobin

Answer: (C)

22. Under the Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme monthly pension is given to

(A) People aged more than 60 years and who are below poverty line

(B) People aged more than 65 years and who are below poverty line

(C) People aged more than 62 years and who are below poverty line

(D) Destitute elderly

Answer: (B)

23. Which of the following methods is used to remove the permanent hardness of water?

(A) Boiling

(B) Adding lime

(C) Permutit process

(D) Adding sodium carbonate

Answer: (D)

24. Supplementary nutrition given to children, aged 6-72 months who are severely malnourished under ICDS is

(A) 800 calories and 20-25 gm protein everyday

(B) 500 calories and 15-20 gm protein everyday

(C) 1000 calories and 20-25 gm protein everyday

(D) 600 calories and 15-20 gm protein everyday

Answer: (A)

25. ‘Ujjawala’ is a comprehensive scheme launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development to combat

(A) Child labour

(B) Child abuse

(C) Child trafficking

(D) Juvenile Delinquency

Answer: (C)

26. Under the ‘Nutrition Programme for Adolescent Girls’ the nutrition provided to each beneficiary is

(A) 600 calories through food per day

(B) 6 kg of free food grain per month

(C) Rs. 6 for buying food per day

(D) 6 gm proteins through food per day

Answer: (B)

27. Pasteurization of milk effectively kills all the following except:

(A) fever organisms

(B) Tubercle bacilli

(C) Salmonella

(D) Bacterial spores

Answer: (D)

28. Abdominal fat accumulation is indicated by waist hip ratio of

(A) more than 1.0 in men and more than 0.85 in women

(B) more than 0.85 in men and more than 0.5 in women

(C) more than 1.0 in men and more than 1.0 in women

(D) more than 1.5 in men and more than 0.85 in women

Answer: (A)

29. The only cancer in which some cases show spontaneous regression without treatment is

(A) Cancer breast

(B) Lung cancer

(C) Cancer cervix

(D) Oral cancer

Answer: (C)

30. The minimum number of antenatal visits recommended for a pregnant woman in India is

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 3

(D) 6

Answer: (B)

31. Which indicator is included in Human development index?

(A) Infant mortality rate

(B) Maternal mortality rate

(C) Life expectancy at birth

(D) Proportion of immunized children

Answer: (C)

32. Factories Act applies to whole of India except

(A) Andhra Pradesh

(B) Jammu and Kashmir

(C) Himachal Pradesh

(D) Tamil Nadu

Answer: (B)

33. In a mosquito, period between a blood meal until eggs are laid is called

(A) Serial interval

(B) Genotrophic cycle

(C) Extrinsic incubation period

(D) Generation time

Answer: (B)

34. Source reduction in mosquito control comprises of

(A) Genetic engineering techniques

(B) Personal protection against bites

(C) Space sprays

(D) Minor engineering methods

Answer: (D)

35. Highest permissible level of chlorine in drinking water is

(A) 5 mg/lit

(B) 75 mg/lit

(C) 125 mg/lit

(D) 200 mg/lit

Answer: (Wrong question)

36. Waste water from kitchen is called

(A) Refuse

(B) Sullage

(C) Garbage

(D) Sewage

Answer: (B)

37. The disinfecting action of chlorine is mainly due to which molecule?

(A) Chlorine

(B) Hypochlorine

(C) Hydrogen

(D) Hypochlorous

Answer: (D)

38. Which one is the most important single determinant of Infant mortality?

(A) Mother’s age

(B) Family size

(C) Order of birth

(D) Birth weight

Answer: (D)

39. Residual action of HCH lasts for

(A) 1 month

(B) 3 months

(C) 10 months

(D) 12 months

Answer: (B)

40. For every case of paralytic poliomyelitis the estimated no. Of subclinical cases are

(A) 10

(B) 100

(C) 400

(D) 1000

Answer: (D)

41. DEC has no effect against

(A) Microfilaria

(B) Adult worm

(C) 2nd stage larva

(D) Infective stage larva

Answer: (Wrong question)

42. The commonest opportunistic infection associated with HIV in India is

(A) Cryptosporidiosis

(B) Herpes simplex

(C) Tuberculosis

(D) Pneumocystis pneumonia

Answer: (C)

43. The daily requirement of Iodine in adult male

(A) 10 μ gm/day

(B) 50 μ gm/day

(C) 100 μ gm/day

(D) 150 μ gm/day

Answer: (D)

44. Primary health care concept was formed by Alma ata Conference in

(A) 1950

(B) 1970

(C) 1978

(D) 1998

Answer: (C)

45. The incidence of Hydatid disease is highest in

(A) Northern India

(B) Eastern India

(C) Southern India

(D) Western India

Answer: (C)

46. Specificity of a test refers to its ability to detect

(A) True positive

(B) False positive

(C) True negative

(D) False negative

Answer: (C)

47. The Body Mass Index (BMI) for a normal adult is

(A) 13.5 – 17.99

(B) 18.5 – 24.99

(C) 25.5 – 30.99

(D) 31.5 – 35.99

Answer: (B)

48. The most common site of cancer in males in India is

(A) Lung

(B) Prostate

(C) Oro-pharynx

(D) Esophagus

Answer: (A)

49. The non-modifiable risk factor for hypertension is

(A) Obesity

(B) Stress

(C) Salt intake

(D) Age

Answer: (D)

50. A case of acute flaccid paralysis must be observed for how many days for residual paralysis after onset of paralysis?

(A) 15 days

(B) 30 days

(C) 45 days

(D) 60 days

Answer: (D)

51. Fast breathing in a two years old child is recognised at

(A) ≥ 60 breaths

(B) ≥ 50 breaths

(C) ≥ 40 breaths

(D) ≥ 30 breaths

Answer: (C)

52. Yellow fever is absent in India because

(A) Climatic conditions are not favourable

(B) Virus is not present

(C) Vector mosquito is absent

(D) Population is immune to the disease

Answer: (B)

53. Statistical power of a study is related to

(A) α error

(B) β error

(C) systematic error

(D) γ error

Answer: (B)

54. In estimation of statistical probability, Z score is applicable to

(A) Normal distribution

(B) Skewed distribution

(C) Binomial distribution

(D) Poisson distribution

Answer: (A)

55. There are no subclinical cases in which of the following infectious diseases?

(A) Measles

(B) Poliomyelitis

(C) Cholera

(D) Diphtheria

Answer: (A)

56. Number of live births per thousand women in the reproductive age group in a given year is known as

(A) General Fertility Rate (GFR)

(B) Total Fertility Rate (TFR)

(C) Gross Reproduction Rate (GRR)

(D) Net Reproduction Rate (NRR)

Answer: (A)

57. If the prevalence is very low as compared to the incidence of a disease, it implies

(A) The disease has low mortality.

(B) The disease is very fatal and/easily curable

(C) The disease has a long latent period

(D) The disease has a short latent period

Answer: (B)

58. Living standard of people is best assessed by

(A) Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)

(B) Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR)

(C) Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI)

(D) Perinatal Mortality Rate (PNMR)

Answer: (Wrong question)

59. External validity of a study indicates

(A) Reproducibility

(B) Credibility

(C) Generalizability

(D) Compatability

Answer: (C)

60. Odds ratio for estimation of strength of association is calculated in

(A) Cross sectional study

(B) Cohort study

(C) Intervential study

(D) Case-control study

Answer: (D)

61. Sullivan’s index indicates

(A) Life free disability

(B) Pregnancy rate per Hundred Women Years (HWY)

(C) Hook worm eggs/gm of stool

(D) Standard of living

Answer: (A)

62. Most difficult criterion to establish causal association in etiology of disease is

(A) Temporality

(B) Strength of association

(C) Specificity of association

(D) Biological plausibility

Answer: (C)

63. Population growth rate is rated to be explosive if the annual growth rate exceeds

(A) 0.5%

(B) 1.0%

(C) 1.5%

(D) 2.0%

Answer: (D)

64. When was the Health Policy first formulation in India?

(A) 1983

(B) 1993

(C) 1973

(D) 2003

Answer: (A)

65. During which Five Year Plan Family Planning Programme was renamed as Family Welfare Programme?

(A) Second

(B) Third

(C) Fourth

(D) Fifth Five Year Plan

Answer: (D)

66. Which of the following indirect causes contribute most for maternal mortality in India?

(A) Anaemia

(B) Pregnancy with T.B.

(C) Pregnancy with Malaria

(D) Pregnancy with Hepatitis

Answer: (A)

67. Care at birth requires five cleans. Which of the following is not among them?

(A) Clean hands

(B) Clean cord tie

(C) Clean water tap

(D) Clean razor blade

Answer: (C)

68. Which of the following institutions is responsible for issues pertaining to health education?

(A) ICMR

(B) CBHI

(C) CHEB

(D) NIMS

Answer: (C)

69. Which of the following States in India ranks poorest in nutritional status of children below 5 years of age?

(A) Chhatisgarh

(B) Orissa

(C) Uttarakhand

(D) Jharkhand

Answer: (D)

70. Under ICDS which of the following services are not delivered through the Anganwadi centre?

(A) Sports training to children below 5 years

(B) Growth monitoring

(C) Nutritional supplement

(D) Pre-school education

Answer: (A)

71. National Malaria Control Programme was rechristened as National Malaria Eradication Program in 1958. When was the National Anti-Malaria Programme introduced?

(A) 1979

(B) 1999

(C) 1989

(D) 2009

Answer: (B)

72. Which of the following is not a norm for the delivery of health and family welfare services to rural community in the hilly regions?

(A) One CHC per 80,000 persons

(B) One sub-centre per 3000 persons

(C) One PHC per 20000 persons

(D) One ASHA per 1000 persons

Answer: (D)

73. Adolescent age starts from according to WHO

(A) 9 years

(B) 10 years

(C) 14 years

(D) 15 years

Answer: (B)

74. Lathyrism affects one of the following systems:

(A) Gastro intestinal system

(B) Renal system

(C) Cardio vascular system

(D) Central nervous system

Answer: (D)

75. Commonly affected site of occupational cancer is

(A) Tongue

(B) Cervix

(C) Skin

(D) Brain

Answer: (C)


Year Wise Solved UGC NET Social Medicine And Community Health Paper 3 Previous Year Question Papers

The old UGC NET Examinations paper-3 in Social Medicine and Community Health was of descriptive type till December 2011.

paper-3 becomes the objective type from June 2012 to November 2017. From July 2018 onward, paper-3 was stopped and becomes part of paper-2 itself.

So, the old questions for paper 3 from June 2012 to November 2017 which were of objective type (multiple choice questions) can be used by the UGC NET aspirants for their better preparation for paper 2.

Year Wise NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are given below.

Download Year Wise NTA UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health paper 3 Solved Paper
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2017 November
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2016 July
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 June
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 December
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 June
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 December
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 September
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 June
UGC NET Social Medicine and Community Health Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June

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