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NTA UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 September
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1. Which among the following is correct regarding the decline of Political theory?
(A) Historicism
(B) Hyper factualism
(C) Moral relativism
(D) All of the above
Answers: (D)
2. Who among the following is not an exponent of contextualism?
(A) Skinner
(B) Pocock
(C) Winch
(D) Wittgenstein
Answers: (D)
3. Who amongst the following is a defender of Plato?
(A) Popper
(B) Crossman
(C) Berlin
(D) Levinson
Answers: (D)
4. Who defines citizen as sharing “in the civic life of ruling and being ruled in turn”?
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Polybius
(D) Cicero
Answers: (B)
5. Amongst the following whose political theory is based on nominalism?
(A) Hobbes
(B) Locke
(C) Rousseau
(D) Green
Answers: (A)
6. John Locke’s ‘Two Treatises on Civil Government is a critique of
(A) Hobbes
(B) Filmer
(C) Grotius
(D) Diggers
Answers: (B)
7. Which among the following is correct?
General Will refers to
(A) My Own Real Will
(B) Group Mind
(C) A common me
(D) All of the above
Answers: (D)
8. Who among the following thought of human beings as ‘home faber’?
(A) St. Simon
(B) Guizot
(C) Karl Marx
(D) Sismondi
Answers: (C)
9. Who among the following says that the workers do not spontaneously become socialists, but only trade unionists, and revolutionary ideology must in consequence be brought to them by professional revolutionaries?
(A) Marx
(B) M.N. Roy
(C) Mao
(D) Lenin
Answers: (D)
10. Which among the following is correct so far as Aurobindo beliefs are concerned?
(A) Belief that his education and talent belong to God which could not be utilised for personal happiness alone.
(B) His resolve that he would not merely repeat the name of God, but have direct realisation of Him.
(C) His conviction that he did not regard the country as an inert object, but as the Mother.
(D) All of the above.
Answers: (D)
11. Who among the following criticized Marxian theory of surplus value?
(A) Savarkar
(B) M.N. Roy
(C) Aurobindo
(D) Jayaprakash Narayan
Answers: (B)
12. Who among the following said: “Those who say that religion has nothing to do with politics do not know what religion means”?
(A) Aurobindo
(B) M.K. Gandhi
(C) Subhas Bose
(D) M.N. Roy
Answers: (B)
13. Identify the correct sequence of the books written by F.A. Hayek
(i) Rules and Order
(ii) The Mirage of Social Justice
(iii) The Constitution of Liberty
(iv) The Road to Serfdom
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
(C) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(D) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
Answers: (C)
14. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Authors) (Books)
a. M. Sandel i. The Restructuring of Social and Political theory
b. M. Waltzer ii. Contemporary Political Philosophy
c. W. Kymlicka iii. Spheres of Justice: A Defence of Pluralism and Equality
d. R.J. Bernstein iv. Liberalism and the Limits of Justice
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) ii i iv iii
Answers: (B)
15. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Great Political theories, originated as Sabine put it, in the interstices of Political and Social crises.
Reason (R): There is no disinterested political theory.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answers: (A)
16. According to Almond and Verba the individuals, in a parochial culture have low
(A) Cognitive Orientation about the Political System, its leaders and operation.
(B) Affective Orientation about the system, its leaders and operation.
(C) Evaluative orientation about the system, its leaders and operation.
(D) All of the above.
Answers: (D)
17. The ‘Block Vote System’ is also known as
(A) First-past-the-post system
(B) Limited vote system
(C) Proportional representation
(D) List system
Answers: (A)
18. In the American Presidential election, in case no candidate secures the required majority, the decision is referred to the
(A) Electorate
(B) Electoral college
(C) Senate
(D) House of Representatives
Answers: (D)
19. According to S.P. Huntigton Political Development takes place when
(A) Mass Mobilisation and Participation is greater than Institutionalisation.
(B) Mass Mobilisation and Participation is lesser than Institutionalisation.
(C) There is rigidity in the Institutions.
(D) There is no generational change in Institutions.
Answers: (B)
20. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Model)
a. Party Identification Model i. linking voting behaviour to group membership.
b. Sociological Model ii. Voting a national actor.
c. National Choice Model iii. Voting shaped by process of ideological manipulation.
d. Dominant Ideology Model iv. Psychological attachment of people to political parties.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) ii iv iii i
(C) iv i ii iii
(D) i ii iii iv
Answers: (C)
21. The concept of Unified and divided government was invented in the U.S.A. Divided Government means
(i) That the Presidency is held by one party and Senate of the Congress is controlled by the other party.
(ii) That the Presidency is held by one party the House of Representative of the congress is held by the other party.
(iii) That the Presidency is held by one party and both the chambers of Congress are controlled by the other party.
(iv) That the Presidency and both the chambers of congress are under the control of same party.
Select the correct answer from the following codes:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answers: (C)
22. Who among the following regards political development as political modernization plus institutionalization?
(A) Almond
(B) Helio Jaquaribe
(C) Cyril Black
(D) None of the above
Answers: (B)
23. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Schools of Modernization) (Writers)
a. Psychological School i. Daniel Lerner
b. Structural School ii. G.A. Almond
c. Normative School iii. Sheldon Wolin
d. Post-modernist School iv. Lyotard
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii i iii iv
(C) iv ii iii i
(D) iii ii iv i
Answers: (A)
24. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Authors) (Books)
a. Walter Rodney i. Theories of Under development and Development
b. Geoffray Kay ii. How Europe Under developed Africa
c. Ronald H. Chilcote iii. Development and under development: A Marxist Analysis
d. Joseph Schumpeter iv. Imperialism: Social classes
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) ii iii i iv
Answers: (D)
25. The pressure groups – the National Council of Churches and the Anti-Saloon League are in
(A) The United States of America
(B) The United Kingdom
(C) India
(D) Switzerland
Answers: (A)
26. Name the variety of motives that can underpin the decision to join interest groups provided by James Wilson.
(i) Instrumental
(ii) Purposive
(iii) Expressive
(iv) Selective Incentives
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Answers: (C)
27. Who of the following makes a distinction between liberal constitutionalism and Democratic disorder?
(A) Francis Fukuyama
(B) Theda Skocpol
(C) B.F. Skinner
(D) Fareed Zakaria
Answers: (B)
28. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
a. Pre-occupations with faction and pressure groups. i. Robert Dahl
b. Managerial Revolution ii. Burnham
c. Participatory Democracy iii. Pateman
d. Instrumentalist theory of the state iv. Miliband
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) i iii ii iv
(C) iv iii ii i
(D) iii iv i ii
Answers: (A)
29. Which of the following are the features of the list system of voting?
(i) The Constituencies are both single and multi-member ones.
(ii) The Constituencies are only multi-member ones.
(iii) The voters vote for the individual candidates.
(iv) Parties put up a panel of candidates for election.
Select the correct answer:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(C) (iii), (iv) and (i) are correct.
(D) (ii) and (iv) are correct.
Answers: (D)
30. Assertion (A): Lucian Pye identified three key ingredients of Political development as equality, capacity and differentiation.
Reason (R): High level of differentiation leads to development and capacity building.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
Answers: (A)
31. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Prime Minister) (Tenure of the Prime Minister)
a. I.K. Gujral i. 16 May 1996 – 1 June 1996
b. A.B. Vajpayee ii. 21 April 1997 – 18 March 1998
c. H.D. Deve Gowda iii. 10 November 1990 – 21 June, 1991
d. Chandra Shekhar iv. 1 June, 1996 – 20 April, 1997
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) ii i iv iii
(C) i iii iv ii
(D) iii ii i iv
Answers: (B)
32. Which of the following is the correct sequence regarding the passage of the Budget?
1. Voting on Grants
2. General Discussion
3. Finance Bill
4. Appropriation Bill
Select the correct code from the following:
(A) 2, 1, 4, 3
(B) 3, 2, 1, 4
(C) 3, 1, 2, 4
(D) 1, 2, 4, 3
Answers: (B)
33. Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?
(A) Right to adequate means of livelihood.
(B) Protection of language, script or culture of minorities.
(C) The state shall endeavour to raise the level of nutrition and standard of living and to improve public health.
(D) To develop cottage industries.
Answers: (B)
34. Assertion (A): The President of India is indirectly elected.
Reason (R): Under a Parliamentary system of Government, the head of State is only a nominal head.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
Answers: (A)
35. Assertion (A): Money bills originate only in the Lower House of the Parliament.
Reason (R): The Lower House of the Parliament is a popularly elected body.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
Answers: (A)
36. Which one of the following committees, is an exclusive committee of Rajya Sabha?
(i) Committee on Subordinate Legislation.
(ii) Committee on Government Assurance.
(iii) Committee on Papers Laid on the Table.
(iv) Committee on Public Undertakings.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) (iv), (iii), (ii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii)
Answers: (D)
37. According to Article 170, the maximum members of the State Legislative Assemblies which are directly elected could be
(A) 403
(B) 485
(C) 484
(D) 500
Answers: (D)
38. Who is the editor/author of the book – “Politics and the State in India”?
(A) M.N. Srinivas
(B) Dharma Kumar
(C) Zoya Hasan
(D) Atul Kohli
Answers: (C)
39. Which of the following has been provided by the Indian Constitution?
(A) Religious education cannot be imparted in private educational institutions.
(B) In private religious institutions presence is not compulsory in religious education.
(C) In private religious institutions presence is compulsory in religious education.
(D) Religious education can be imparted in government educational institutions.
Answers: (B)
40. Which of the following is not a peasants’ movement?
(A) Kheda Movement
(B) Tabligh Movement
(C) Telangana Movement
(D) Tebhaga Movement
Answers: (B)
41. Which of the following phrase has been used by Bendict Anderson for Indian Nationalism?
(A) Polycentric Nationalism
(B) Ethnocentric Nationalism
(C) Imagined community
(D) Liberal Nationalism
Answers: (C)
42. Which of the following is Atul Kohli’s definition of the crisis of governability in India as
(i) The absence of enduring coalitions.
(ii) Policy ineffectiveness.
(iii) An incapacity to accommodate political conflict without violence.
(iv) Growing disjuncture between centralization and development.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(C) (iii), (iv) and (i) are correct.
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
Answers: (A)
43. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Authors) (Ideas)
a. Lloyd and Susanne Rudolph i. State is Chief allocator of resources and Chief facilitator among social groups.
b. Partha Chatterjee ii. Indian State embedded in group and class pluralism.
c. Frankel and MSA Rao iii. Over developed post-colonial state.
d. Hamza Alavi iv. Democratic politics split between public institutions and political institutions.
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) i ii iii iv
Answers: (C)
44. Who pointed out that the western antonym of “secular” is “religious”. But in India, the antonym of “secular” is “communal”?
(A) T.N. Madan
(B) Rajeev Bhargav
(C) Ashis Nandy
(D) Thomas Pantham
Answers: (D)
45. Which one is not an element of the Secular State is India?
(A) Civil Equality.
(B) Freedom of Religion.
(C) No religious education by the State.
(D) Taxation on religious property.
Answers: (D)
46. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Authors) (Books)
a. Seldon Oliver i. A power of Public Administration
b. Lepaworky Albert (ed.) ii. The Philosophy of Management
c. Ashok Chanda iii. Administration the Art and Science of Organisation and Management
d. Finer S.E. iv. Indian Administration
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv i ii iii
(B) i iv iii ii
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) iii i ii iv
Answers: (C)
47. In India promotion cases of senior Civil Servants are decided by
(A) The Head Office
(B) The Departmental Promotion Committee
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Cabinet Committee
Answers: (D)
48. Who among the following says that Public Administration includes the operations only of the executive branch of Government?
(A) Luther Gulick
(B) L.D. White
(C) W.F. Willoughby
(D) L.D. White and Luther Gulick
Answers: (A)
49. The concept of the “Zone of indifference” is associated with
(A) Motivation
(B) Authority
(C) Leadership
(D) Decision-making
Answers: (B)
50. Which of the following is a feature of Public Corporation?
(A) It enjoys complete administrative autonomy from the control from ministry.
(B) It has its own budget separate from National Budget.
(C) It has complete autonomy in the Management of funds.
(D) It enjoys the initiative of a Private Enterprise.
Answers: (A)
51. Which of the following is not included in “hygiene” factors in the Herzberg two-factor theory of motivation?
(A) Responsibility
(B) Salary
(C) Working conditions
(D) Company policy
Answers: (A)
52. The term “Performance Budget was coined by
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission of India.
(B) First Hoover Commission of USA.
(C) Second Hoover Commission of USA.
(D) Estimates Committee of India.
Answers: (B)
53. Which one of the following was not the recommendation of Administrative Reforms Commission in India about the working of Public Corporation?
(A) High functionaries should be full time employees.
(B) Secretary of the Ministry concerned should always be included as the member of the board of Management.
(C) Internal audit should be made more effective.
(D) All of the above.
Answers: (B)
54. ‘Position classification’ is the classification of
(A) Duties
(B) Salaries
(C) Personal status of incumbents
(D) Departments
Answers: (A)
55. The Civil Service was defined as a “Professional body of officials, permanent, paid and skilled” by
(A) Felix Nigro
(B) O.G. Stahl
(C) Herman Finer
(D) E.N. Gladden
Answers: (C)
56. Which of the following reports deals with the relations between the specialists and generalists?
(A) Kothari Committee Report
(B) Sarkaria Committee Report
(C) Haldane Committee Report
(D) Fulton Committee Report
Answers: (D)
57. Reservation for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the services has been provided under
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 375
Answers: (B)
58. The “Gang-Plank” refers to
(A) Equity
(B) Level jumping
(C) Initiative
(D) Motivation
Answers: (B)
59. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of Public Corporation?
(A) It is a legal identity.
(B) It can neither sue nor can be sued.
(C) It can enter into contracts.
(D) It can own property.
Answers: (B)
60. Assertion (A): The All-India Services do not violate the federal principle of the Constitution as well as the autonomy of the states.
Reason (R): The All-India Service Officers are governed by the Central Government rules and the State Governments do not have full control over them.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answers: (D)
61. Under which theoretical approach will you place Alexander Wendt?
(A) Post modernism
(B) Critical theory
(C) Neo-Marxism
(D) Social constructivism
Answers: (D)
62. What is the correct ascending chronological order of the treaties give below:
(i) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty.
(ii) Landmines Ban Treaty.
(iii) Chemical Weapons Agreement.
(iv) Indefinite Extension of NPT.
Codes:
(A) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
Answers: (B)
63. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Type of Political Systems) (Countries)
a. Constitutionally decentralized unions. i. USA
b. Union with certain federal features. ii. UK
c. Confederation iii. India
d. Federation iv. Switzerland
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iii iv i
(B) iii ii i iv
(C) iv i ii iii
(D) i iv iii ii
Answers: (A)
64. Origin of the Communication approach can be traced to
(A) Biology
(B) Philosophy
(C) Anthropology
(D) Cybernetic Engineering
Answers: (D)
65. Third tier states are states as stated by Steven Metz are marked by
(A) Corruption
(B) Crisis of Governance
(C) Issues of Sovereignty
(D) Periodic instability
Answers: (B)
66. The concept of the League of Nations was conceived in the ideas of
(A) E.H. Carr
(B) Kaiser Wilhem
(C) Woodrow Wilson
(D) Franklin D. Roosevelt
Answers: (C)
67. Assertion (A): the emergence and strengthening of regional parties are connected.
Reason (R): Regionalism from below has its roots in distinctive cultures and identities.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true and (A) is false.
Answers: (A)
68. Which one of the determinants of Indian Foreign Policy is not the reason for defacto recognition of Israel by India before 1980?
(A) Economic factor
(B) Pluralist nature of Indian Society
(C) History and tradition of India
(D) Ideology of Indian Nation
Answers: (C)
69. Which one of the countries was not a member of the Commission appointed by the Security Council to solve the Indo-Pak Kashmir dispute?
(A) Argentina
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Columbia
(D) U.S.S.R.
Answers: (D)
70. “Hot Line” in International Relations means
(A) Fascimile Transmission Capability to Direct Communication Link (DCL)
(B) To send Graphic Material via DCL.
(C) Direct Communication between Head of States (Head of Governments)
(D) As above of all.
Answers: (D)
71. Indo-Bangladesh relations were strained because of one of the followings reasons:
(A) Agreement over the claim of adverse enclaves.
(B) To construct Akhaura-Agartala link.
(C) To setup border market along the Bangladesh-Meghalaya border.
(D) Teesta River water distribution.
Answers: (D)
72. Assertion (A): Each state now goes to great lengths to manipulate media images of the conflict, and journalists have effectively been transformed from observers into active participants.
Reason (R): Media warfare is setting agendas and manufacturing consent.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answers: (B)
73. Answer the following Indo-Pak agreements in chronological order:
(i) Agra Accord
(ii) Tashkent Agreement
(iii) Lahore Agreement
(iv) Shimla Agreement
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(B) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
(C) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Answers: (C)
74. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Countries) (Problems)
a. Pakistan i. Illegal immigrants
b. Bangladesh ii. Baghlihar Hydro project
c. Nepal iii. Transitory Passage
d. China iv. Tawang Incident
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii i iii iv
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) iv iii ii i
Answers: (B)
75. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Countries) (Dispute)
a. Cambodia – Vietnam i. Spratlys Island
b. Myanmar – Thailand ii. Ladrang and Islands of baie
c. Malaysia – Philippines iii. Dai Lang
d. Vietnam – Philippines iv. Sabah/North Borneo
Codes:
a b c d
(A) ii iii iv i
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) iv i ii iii
Year Wise Solved UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Previous Year Question Papers
The old UGC NET Examinations paper-3 in Political Science was of descriptive type till December 2011.
Paper 3 becomes the objective type from June 2012 to November 2017. From July 2018 onward, paper 3 was stopped and becomes part of paper 2 itself.
So, the old questions for paper-3 from June 2012 to November 2017 which were of objective type (multiple choice questions) can be used by the UGC NET aspirants for their better preparation for paper-2.
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Papers are given below.
| Download Year Wise NTA UGC NET Political Science paper 3 Solved Paper |
| UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2017 November |
| UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2016 July |
| UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 June |
| UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2015 December |
| UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 June |
| UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2014 December |
| UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 December |
| UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 September |
| UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2013 June |
| UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 December |
| UGC NET Political Science Paper 3 Solved Question Paper 2012 June |
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