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NTA UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2012 June
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1. If the standard deviation of a population is 20 and the standard error of mean is 4, then the sample size is
(A) 25
(B) 80
(C) 5
(D) 100
Answer: (A)
2. In a multiple regression model, the explained variance per d.f. is 50 and unexplained variance per d.f. is 10.
The F-ratio is
(A) 2.5
(B) 5
(C) 25
(D) 0.2
Answer: (B)
3. Which one of the following is not a random sampling method?
(A) Stratified Sampling
(B) Cluster Sampling
(C) Systematic Sampling
(D) Judgement Sampling
Answer: (B)
4. In the Gaussian Plume Model, the plume size is estimated considering buoyancy of exhaust gases, stack diameter, wind speed and stability of the atmosphere. The plume size Dh depends on inside radius of stack (r) as
(A) Dh µ r
(B) Dh µ r1/3
(C) Dh µ r2/3
(D) Dh µ r2
Answer: (D)
5. The acidity of normal rain water is due to
(A) CO2
(B) Cl2
(C) NO2
(D) SO2
Answer: (C)
6. Percent of water on the world’s surface representing fresh water is
(A) 97
(B) 50
(C) 10
(D) 3
Answer: (A)
7. Concentration of CO2Â in present day atmosphere is
(A) ~ 220 ppm
(B) ~ 280 ppm
(C) ~ 360 ppm
(D) ~ 390 ppm
Answer: (D)
8. Hardness of diamond is due to
(A) Coordinate bonding
(B) Covalent bonding
(C) Electrovalent bonding
(D) van der Waals forces
Answer: (B)
9. In biological systems sulphur is largely bound in
(A) Lipids
(B) Proteins
(C) Nucleic acids
(D) Proteins and nucleic acids
Answer: (B)
10. pH of 0.01 M HNO3Â is
(A) 0.1
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 10
Answer: (C)
11. Which is a correct food chain in the Antarctic ecosystem?
(A) Phytoplankton – Krill – Carnivorous Plankton – Emperor Penguin
(B) Phytoplankton – Krill – Carnivorous Plankton – Squid – Elephant Seal – Leopard Seal
(C) Phytoplankton – Herbivorous Zoo Plankton – Carnivorous Plankton – Adelic Penguin – Emperor Penguin
(D) Herbivorous Zoo Plankton – Phytoplankton – Carnivorous Plankton – Elephant Seal – Leopard Seal
Answer: (B)
12. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The phosphorous cycle in an ecosystem is a sedimentary cycle.
Reason (R): Phosphorous does not occur naturally as gas.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
13. Pyramid of trophic levels is always upright in case of
(A) Biomass
(B) Energy
(C) Number
(D) All of the above
Answer: (B)
14. Which of the following is a correct match?
(A) Periyar – Kerala
(B) Ranthambore – M.P.
(C) Panna – U.P.
(D) Bandhvgarh – Bihar
Answer: (A)
15. Replacement of existing communities by any external condition is termed
(A) Primary succession
(B) Secondary succession
(C) Autogenic succession
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
16. The area where two major communities meet and blend together is termed as
(A) Ecotype
(B) Biotype
(C) Ecotone
(D) Meeting place
Answer: (C)
17. Indian wolf has become an important animal because
(A) It’s name appears in Red Data Book.
(B) It is only an important member of food chain of almost all Indian forests.
(C) Wild dogs disappeared due to their presence.
(D) It has been chosen as a State animal.
Answer: (A)
18. Walkley and Black rapid titration method is used for the determination of
(A) Organic carbon content of soil
(B) Nitrate content of soil
(C) Phosphate content of soil
(D) Fluoride content of soil
Answer: (A)
19. Which one of the following is an endoenzyme in soil?
(A) Cellulase
(B) Invertase
(C) Protease
(D) Dehydrogenase
Answer: (D)
20. Of the following humic groups which is not soluble in both acid and alkali?
(A) Fulvic acid
(B) Humic acid
(C) Humin
(D) All of the above
Answer: (C)
21. The sources of thermal pollution are
(A) Power plants
(B) Cooling forests
(C) Industrial effluents
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
22. Which one of the following radionuclides has the longest half life?
(A) C14
(B) Sr90
(C) I131
(D) Cs137
Answer: (D)
23. What is the importance of the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution brought in the year 1976?
(A) Insertion of Article 48-A
(B) Insertion of Article 51-A (g)
(C) Insertion of Article 48-A and 51-A (g)
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
24. Who issues the Ecomark notification?
(A) Ministry of Environment and Forest, Govt. of India
(B) Ministry of Human Health and Family Welfare, Govt. of India
(C) Department of Science and Technology, Govt. of India
(D) Bureau of Indian Standards
Answer: (A)
25. Which one of the following is a waste recycling method of solid waste management?
(A) Pelletisation
(B) Composting
(C) Incineration
(D) Sanitary Landfill
Answer: (B)
26. A hazardous waste is characterised by
(A) Ignitibility
(B) Reactivity
(C) Toxicity
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
27. How many hot spots have been identified in the world and Indian Subcontinent respectively?
(A) 17, 2
(B) 12, 3
(C) 35, 2
(D) 17, 3
Answer: (C)
28. Which one of the following chemical species of mercury is highly toxic to living system?
(A) Mercurous ion
(B) Mercuric ion
(C) Organo mercurials
(D) Atomic mercury
Answer: (C)
29. Natural gas is composed primarily of
(A) Methane
(B) n-butane
(C) n-octane
(D) A mixture of n-octane and n-butane
Answer: (A)
30. Which of the following is true regarding the Leopold interaction matrix used in Environmental Impact Assessment Process?
(A) It can be expanded.
(B) It can be contracted.
(C) It can be contracted and expanded.
(D) It cannot be contracted and expanded.
Answer: (C)
31. Which of the following can be considered in Environmental Risk Assessment?
(A) Exposure period
(B) Potency of a toxic material
(C) Quality of models
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
32. In India, Environmental Impact Assessment report of a proposed river valley project after environmental clearance is applicable for a maximal period of how many years?
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 30
(D) 2
Answer: (B)
33. An earthquake is rated as ‘major’ if its magnitude in Richter Scale is in the range of
(A) 4.0 – 4.9
(B) 7.0 – 7.9
(C) 6.0 – 6.9
(D) 5.0 – 5.9
Answer: (B)
34. What is the proportion of the frequency of occurrence of La Nina compared to El Nino?
(A) Half
(B) One-third
(C) Twice
(D) Two-third
Answer: (A)
35. An element in soil will be considered as a trace element if its concentration is
(A) 1 – 2 wt %
(B) < 0.1 wt %
(C) > 2 wt %
(D) < 1 wt %
Answer: (B)
36. Which of the following is correct about attribute data in Geographic Information System?
(A) Attributes are pieces of data that are connected or related to the points, lines or polygons mapped in the GIS.
(B) Attribute data can be analysed to determine patterns of importance.
(C) Attribute data is entered directly into a database where it is associated with element data.
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
37. At Nadir, the LISS – IV camera in IRS-P6 has a spatial resolution of
(A) 5.8 m
(B) 5.9 m
(C) 5.7 m
(D) 5.6 m
Answer: (A)
38. Which one of the following can be estimated by Flame Photometer?
(A) Sodium and Potassium
(B) Cadmium and Cobalt
(C) Chlorine and Bromine
(D) Mercury and Arsenic
Answer: (A)
39. The contribution of CO2Â towards global warming has been estimated to be about
(A) 57 – 60%
(B) 60 – 75%
(C) 80 – 85%
(D) 45 – 55%
Answer: (A)
40. The principal components of photochemical smog in urban areas are
(A) SO2Â and NO2
(B) SPM and CO
(C) SPM and NO2
(D) Hydrocarbons and Ozone
Answer: (D)
41. Match Lists – I and II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Aerosol Constituents)                      List – II (Sources)
(i) Si                                                               1. Gases in the ambient atmosphere
(ii) VÂ Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â Â 2. Natural sources
(iii) Benzo(a)pyrene                                       3. Combustion of certain kinds of fuel oil
(iv) Sulfuric acid droplets                              4. Incomplete combustion
Codes :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) 2 Â Â Â 4 Â Â Â 3 Â Â Â 1
(B) 3 Â Â Â 1 Â Â Â 2 Â Â Â 4
(C) 4 Â Â Â 1 Â Â Â 2Â Â Â 3
(D) 1 Â Â Â 4 Â Â Â 3Â Â Â 2
Answer: (A)
42. A river flowing at 20.0 m3/sec has a tributary feeding into it with a flow rate of 5.0 m3/sec. Upstream from the point of junction. The fluoride concentration is 5 mg/L in the river and 10 mg/L in the tributary. Assuming fluoride to be conservative substance and rapid mixing in the river, the downstream concentration in the river is
(A) 6 mg/L
(B) 8 mg/L
(C) 8.5 mg/L
(D) 7.5 mg/L
Answer: (A)
43. The power obtained from a horizontal wind turbine operating at maximum efficiency is proportional to its diameter (D) as
(A) D
(B) D2
(C) D3/2
(D) /D
Answer: (B)
44. Noise of 90 dB for 8 hours represents 100% dose. If the noise of 93 dB is for 1 hour duration, it represents a dose of
(A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 75%
(D) 100%
Answer: (A)
45. Scale lengths associated with mesoscale phenomenon in atmosphere are typically in the range
(A) 10 – 500 m
(B) 1 – 200 km
(C) 100 – 1000 km
(D) 1000 – 10,000 km
Answer: (B)
46. When an atmosphere has an isothermal profile, it is
(A) very stable
(B) slightly stable
(C) unstable
(D) very unstable (turbulent)
Answer: (B)
47. The wavelength range of UV-C radiation is
(A) 320 – 400 nm
(B) 280 – 320 nm
(C) 100 – 1500 nm
(D) 240 – 280 nm
Answer: (D)
48. Lightening in the atmosphere produces
(A) NO
(B) CO
(C) CO2
(D) NH3
Answer: (A)
49. The maximum tidal energy potential in India is
(A) in Gulf of Khambhat
(B) in Gangetic delta in Sundarbans
(C) along the coast of Odisha
(D) along the coast of Chennai
Answer: (A)
50. The maximum theoretical efficiency of a silicon solar cell can be
(A) 45%
(B) 30%
(C) 12%
(D) 50%
Answer: (A)
Year Wise Solved UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Previous Year Question Papers
Year Wise NTA UGC NET Environmental Sciences Solved question Papers from June 2006 till today are given below.
| Download Year Wise NTA UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Paper |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2020 June |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2019 December |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2019 June |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2018 December |
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| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2016 July |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2015 June |
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| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2014 June |
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| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2013 June |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2012 December |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2012 June |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2011 June |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2011 December |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2010 June |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2010 December |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2009 June |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2009 December |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2008 June |
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| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2007 June |
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| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2006 June |
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| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2005 June |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2005 December |
| UGC NET Environmental Sciences Paper 2 Solved Question Paper 2004 December |
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