NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2007 June

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NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2007 June

NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2007 June: To score better marks in the NTA UGC NET Paper 1, you should have depth knowledge of the entire subject. You can boost your preparation by referring to NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Question Paper 2007 June. It will give you information about the important chapters and concepts covered in all chapters.

You must have NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Papers along with the latest Paper 1 Syllabus to enhance your semester exam preparation.

Here we provide you the complete guide on NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2007 June.

NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2007 June

NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Papers are considered the best study materials to score good marks in the paper 1exam. Practicing these NTA UGC NET Paper 1 previous year question papers assist the students in getting a clear idea about the question paper pattern and types of questions asked in the exam.

You can check the complete NTA UGC NET Paper 1 Solved Question Paper 2007 June.

1. Teacher uses visual-aids to make learning:

(A) simple

(B) more knowledgeable

(C) quicker

(D) interesting

Answer: (D)

2. The teacher's role at the higher educational level is to:

(A) provide information to students

(B) promote self-learning in students

(C) encourage healthy competition among students

(D) help students to solve their personal problems

Answer: (B)

3. Which one of the following teachers would you like the most:

(A) punctual

(B) having research aptitude

(C) loving and having high idealistic philosophy

(D) who often amuses his students

Answer: (B)

4. Micro teaching is most effective for the student-teacher:

(A) during the practice-teaching

(B) after the practice-teaching

(C) before the practice-teaching

(D) none of the above

Answer: (A)

5. Which is the least important factor in teaching?

(A) punishing the students

(B) maintaining discipline in the class

(C) lecturing in impressive way

(D) drawing sketches and diagrams on the black-board

Answer: (A)

6. To test null hypothesis, a researcher uses:

(A) t test

(B) ANOVA

(C) X2

(D) factorial analysis

Answer: (B)

7. A research problem is feasible only when:

(A) it has utility and relevance

(B) it is researchable

(C) it is new and adds something to knowledge

(D) all the above

Answer: (D)

8. Bibliography given in a research report:

(A) shows vast knowledge of the researcher

(B) helps those interested in further research

(C) has no relevance to research

(D) all the above

Answer: (B)

9. Fundamental research reflects the ability to:

(A) Synthesize new ideals

(B) Expound new principles

(C) Evaluate the existing material concerning research

(D) Study the existing literature regarding various topics

Answer: (B)

10. The study in which the investigators attempt to trace an effect is known as:

(A) Survey Research

(B) 'Ex-post Facto' Research

(C) Historical Research

(D) Summative Research

Answer: (B)

Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15:

All political systems need to mediate the relationship between private wealth and public power. Those that fail risk a dysfunctional government captured by wealthy interests. Corruption is one symptom of such failure with private willingness-to-pay trumping public goals. Private individuals and business firms pay to get routine services and to get to the head of the bureaucratic queue. They pay to limit their taxes, avoid costly regulations, obtain contracts at inflated prices and get concessions and privatised firms at low prices. If corruption is endemic, public officials - both bureaucrats and elected officials - may redesign programmes and propose public projects with few public benefits and many opportunities for private profit. Of course, corruption, in the sense of bribes, pay-offs and kickbacks, is only one type of government failure. Efforts to promote 'good governance' must be broader than anti-corruption campaigns. Governments may be honest but inefficient because no one has an incentive to work productively, and narrow elites may capture the state and exert excess influence on policy. Bribery may induce the lazy to work hard and permit those not in the inner circle of cronies to obtain benefits. However, even in such cases, corruption cannot be confined to 'functional' areas. It will be a temptation whenever private benefits are positive. It may be a reasonable response to a harsh reality but, over time, it can facilitate a spiral into an even worse situation.

11. The governments which fail to focus on the relationship between private wealth and public power are likely to become:

(A) Functional

(B) Dysfunctional

(C) Normal functioning

(D) Good governance

Answer: (B)

12. One important symptom of bad governance is:

(A) Corruption

(B) High taxes

(C) Complicated rules and regulations

(D) High prices

Answer: (A)

13. When corruption is rampant, public officials always aim at many opportunities for:

(A) Public benefits

(B) Public profit

(C) Private profit

(D) Corporate gains

Answer: (C)

14. Productivity linked incentives to public/private officials is one of the indicatives for:

(A) Efficient government

(B) Bad governance

(C) Inefficient government

(D) Corruption

Answer: (A)

15. The spiralling corruption can only be contained by promoting:

(A) Private profit

(B) Anti-corruption campaign

(C) Good governance

(D) Pay-offs and kick backs

Answer: (A)

16. Press Council of India is located at:

(A) Chennai

(B) Mumbai

(C) Kolkata

(D) Delhi

Answer: (D)

17. Adjusting the photo for publication by cutting is technically known as:

(A) Photo cutting

(B) Photo bleeding

(C) Photo cropping

(D) Photo adjustment

Answer: (C)

18. Feed-back of a message comes from:

(A) Satellite

(B) Media

(C) Audience

(D) Communicator

Answer: (A)

19. Collection of information in advance before designing communication strategy is known as:

(A) Feed-back

(B) Feed-forward

(C) Research study

(D) Opinion poll

Answer: (D)

20. The aspect ratio of TV screen is:

(A) 4:3

(B) 4:2

(C) 3:5

(D) 2:3

Answer: (A)

21. Which is the number that comes next in the sequence?

9, 8, 8, 8, 7, 8, 6,

(A) 5

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 4

Answer: (C)

22. If in a certain language TRIVANDRUM is coded as 2 5 9 5 3 5 4 7 5 8, how would MADRAS be coded?

(A) 834536

(B) 834538

(C) 834530

(D) 834539

Answer: (A)

23. The question to be answered by factorial analysis of the quantitative data does not explain one of the following:

(A) Is 'X' related to 'Y'?

(B) How is 'X' related to 'Y'?

(C) How does 'X' affect the dependent variable 'Y' at different levels of another independent variable 'K' or 'M'?

(D) How is 'X' by 'K' related to 'M'?

Answer: (D)

24. January 12, 1980 was Saturday, what day was January 12, 1979:

(A) Saturday

(B) Friday

(C) Sunday

(D) Thursday

Answer: (B)

25. How many Mondays are there in a particular month of a particular year, if the month ends on Wednesday?

(A) 5

(B) 4

(C) 3

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B)

26. From the given four statements, select the two which cannot be true but yet both can be false.

Choose the right pair:

(i) All men are mortal

(ii) Some men are mortal

(iii) No man is mortal

(iv) Some men are not mortal

(A) (i) and(ii)

(B) (iii) and (iv)

(C) (i) and(iii)

(D) (ii) and(iv)

Answer: (D)

27. A Syllogism must have:

(A) Three terms

(B) Four terms

(C) Six terms

(D) Five terms

Answer: (B)

28. Copula is that part of proposition which denotes the relationship between:

(A) Subject and predicate

(B) Known and unknown

(C) Major premise and minor premise

(D) Subject and object

Answer: (A)

29. "E" denotes:

(A) Universal Negative Proposition

(B) Particular Affirmative Proposition

(C) Universal Affirmative Proposition

(D) Particular Negative Proposition

Answer: (A)

30. 'A' is the father of 'C, and 'D' is the son of 'B'. 'E' is the brother of 'A'. If 'C is the sister of 'D', how is 'B' related to 'E'?

(A) daughter

(B) husband

(C) sister-in-law

(D) brother-in-law

Answer: (C)

31. Which of the following methods will you choose to prepare choropleth map of India showing urban density of population:

(A) Quartiles

(B) Quintiles

(C) Mean and SD

(D) Break - point

Answer: (A)

32. Which of the following methods is best suited to show on a map the types of crops being grown in a region?

(A) Choropleth

(B) Chorochromatic

(C) Choroschematic

(D) Isopleth

Answer: (A)

33. A ratio represents the relation between:

(A) Part and Part

(B) Part and Whole

(C) Whole and Whole

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

34. Out of four numbers, the average of the first three numbers is thrice the fourth number. If the average of the four numbers is 5, the fourth number is:

(A) 4.5

(B) 5

(C) 2

(D) 4

Answer: (C)

35. Circle graphs are used to show:

(A) How various sections share in the whole?

(B) How various parts are related to the whole?

(C) How one whole is related to other wholes

(D) How one part is related to other parts?

Answer: (B)

36. On the keyboard of computer each character has an "ASCII" value which stands for:

(A) American Stock Code for Information Interchange

(B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange

(C) African Standard Code for Information Interchange

(D) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Change

Answer: (B)

37. Which part of the Central Processing Unit (CPU) performs calculation and makes decisions:

(A) Arithematic Logic Unit

(B) Alternating Logic Unit

(C) Alternate Local Unit

(D) American Logic Unit

Answer: (A)

38. "Dpi" stands for:

(A) Dots per inch

(B) Digits per unit

(C) Dots pixel inch

(D) Diagrams per inch

Answer: (A)

39. The process of laying out a document with text, graphics, headlines and photographs is involved in

(A) Deck Top Publishing

(B) Desk Top Printing

(C) Desk Top Publishing

(D) Deck Top Printing

Answer: (C)

40. Transfer of data from one application to another line is known as:

(A) Dynamic Disk Exchange

(B) Dodgy Data Exchange

(C) Dogmatic Data Exchange

(D) Dynamic Data Exchange

Answer: (D)

41. Tsunami occurs due to:

(A) Mild earthquakes and landslides in the oceans

(B) Strong earthquakes and landslides in the oceans

(C) Strong earthquakes and landslides in mountains

(D) Strong earthquakes and landslides in deserts

Answer: (B)

42. Which of the natural hazards have big effect on Indian people each year?

(A) Cyclones

(B) Floods

(C) Earthquakes

(D) Landslides

Answer: (B)

43. Comparative Environment Impact Assessment study is to be conducted for:

(A) the whole year

(B) three seasons excluding monsoon

(C) any three seasons

(D) the worst season

Answer: (A)

44. Sea level rise results primarily due to:

(A) Heavy rainfall

(B) Melting of glaciers

(C) Submarine volcanism

(D) Seafloor spreading

Answer: (B)

45. The plume rise in a coal based power plant depends on:

(i) Buoyancy

(ii) Atmospheric stability

(iii) Momentum of exhaust gases

Identify the correct code:

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(C) (i) and (iii) only

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer: (B)

46. Value education makes a student:

(A) Good citizen

(B) Successful businessman

(C) Popular teacher

(D) Efficient manager

Answer: (A)

47. Networking of libraries through electronic media is known as:

(A) Inflibnet

(B) Libinfnet

(C) Internet

(D) HTML

Answer: (A)

48. The University which telecasts interactive educational programmes through its own channel is:

(A) B. R. Ambedkar Open University, Hyderabad

(B) I.G.N.O.U.

(C) University of Pune

(D) Annamalai University

Answer: (B)

49. The Government established the University Grants Commission by an Act of Parliament in the year:

(A) 1980

(B) 1948

(C) 1950

(D) 1956

Answer: (D)

50. Universities having central campus for imparting education are called:

(A) Central Universities

(B) Deemed Universities

(C) Residential Universities

(D) Open Universities

Answer: (A)

Year Wise UGC NET Previous Year Question Papers Solved Paper 1

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